SSC Exams · SSC CGL

SSC CGL Exam 2025 Tier-I Similar-Based Paper (Held On: 12 Sept, 2025 Shift 3) (Hindi)

SSC CGL Exam 2025 Tier-I Similar-Based Paper (Held On: 12 Sept, 2025 Shift 3) (Hindi) with official questions, answers, and practice mock test.
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Section 1

General Intelligence and Reasoning

25 questions Section Test
1

Select the letter-cluster from among the given choices that logically continues the following sequence: K M O, M P S, O S W, Q V A, ?

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2

Select the sequence of letter-clusters from the choices below that completes the following series: B E I, D G L, F I O, H K R, ?

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3

What number comes next in the sequence: 6, 20, 42, 72, 110, ? 145

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4

What number will occupy the place of the question mark in the following series: 3, 10, 101, 10202, ?

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5

Identify the missing number that logically fits in the sequence: 6, 12, 20, 30, ?

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6

Instruction: Identify the assumptions that must hold true for the statement to be considered valid, then choose the correct option. Statement: All employees must attend the mandatory cybersecurity training session next week to mitigate potential corporate data breaches. Assumptions: I. Data breaches are a serious threat to the company. II. Employee participation in training will reduce the risk of future breaches. III. Every employee is currently unaware of basic cybersecurity protocols.

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7

The position of how many letters will remain unchanged if each of the letters in the word CREATIVE is arranged in alphabetical order?

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8

Identify the option that provides the exact similar address: No. 12/A, Subhash Chandra Bose Road, T Nagar, Chennai, Tamil Nadu - 600017

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9

From the given options, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters present in the given word: PHOTOGRAPHER

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10

Six friends J, K, L, M, N, and P are sitting around a circular table facing the center. K is second to the left of J. P is opposite K. M is to the immediate right of L. J is between N and P. Who is sitting second to the right of M? J

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11

In the following question, a fixed alphabetic coding pattern has been used to transform the first word into the second word. Applying the same logic to the third word, determine the correct answer from the given choices. SYSTEM : VBVWHP :: THEORY : ?

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12

In the following question, the second word is derived from the first word by rearranging its letters through block shifting. Identify this transformation and apply it to the third word to find the corresponding option. EXAMPLE : PLEEXAM :: ANALOGY : ?

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13

Observe the given sequence and select the option that continues the established pattern: Z7A, W10D, T13G, ?

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14

Instruction: In a certain coded language: 'study hard learn progress' is coded as 'jkl, hgv, cdf, pqr'; 'test progress fast study' is coded as 'pqr, mnz, hgv, tuv'; 'hard work progress success' is coded as 'jkl, efg, pqr, wxy'. Question: What is the code for 'learn hard test work'?

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15

If 5x + y = 16 and x - y = 2, find the value of x.

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16

If 9 @ 4 = 77 and 6 @ 2 = 34, then 7 @ 4 = ?

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17

If 'HINT' is coded as @#% $, and 'TIN' as % # @, then what is the code for 'INTO'?

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18

If the ratio of two numbers is 2:7 and their difference is 45, find the larger number.

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19

If 6 dollar sign 3 = 45 and 4 dollar sign 5 = 41, then what is 8 dollar sign 2?

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20

Pointing to a woman, a man said, "She is the mother of my sister's husband." How is the woman related to the man?

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21

If A is the father of B, and C is the daughter of A's only brother, how is B related to C?

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22

After interchanging - and ÷ and also interchanging the numbers 2 and 6, which of the following equations will be mathematically correct?

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23

If m @ n = 50, where m @ n = 3m + 5n, which pair of values for m and n is not possible? m=5, n=7

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24

If multiplication = plus, minus = division, plus = multiplication, and division = minus; then calculate the value of the expression: 18 + 6 × 3 - 9 ÷ 3 = ?

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25

In a social gathering of 12 people, if every person exchanges a gift with every other person exactly once, how many total gifts are exchanged?

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Section 2

General Awareness

25 questions Section Test
26

Arrange the following Indian classical dances in the order of their historical emergence (oldest to newest): 1. Kathak 2. Manipuri 3. Bharatanatyam 4. Mohiniyattam

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27

Which of the following temple roof styles is correctly matched with its architectural shape?

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28

The Pongtu festival of the Tutsa tribe in Arunachal Pradesh is primarily related to the worship of which deity for agricultural prosperity? Rangfraa

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29

In Hindustani Classical Music, the Khali of the Jhaptaal cycle is marked on which matra?

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30

Why are specific weight and size standards maintained for footballs used in official tournaments?

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31

Which Indian archer became the first to win a gold medal at the 2024 Paralympic Games?

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32

Which city was the venue for the 2018 BRICS Foreign Ministers’ meeting?

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33

Which of the following best describes the theme of the book 'Hot Stage'?

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34

Which of the following is not a parameter used to describe weather?

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35

Consider the following statements about the 61st National Chess Championship: 1. The event was hosted in Gurgaon. 2. GM Karthik Venkataraman clinched the title. Which of the statements given above are correct?

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36

On Electrical Safety Day 2025, which initiative was introduced by the Ministry of Power to spread awareness about safe practices? Smart Grid App

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37

Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct option: Assertion (A): The Chotanagpur Plateau forms part of the Peninsular Plateau. Reason (R): It is drained by the Damodar and Subarnarekha rivers.

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38

The Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS) by ISRO is expected to have its first module launched in which year?

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39

Which statement correctly highlights the role of non-metallic minerals in India’s economy?

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40

According to the Constitution, a Proclamation of National Emergency must be approved by Parliament within how many months?

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41

Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct option: Assertion (A): PSLV is known as ISRO’s workhorse vehicle. Reason (R): It can launch satellites of multiple sizes into various orbits with consistent success.

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42

Which Constitutional Amendment abolished Anglo-Indian representation in State Legislative Assemblies?

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43

Which reform introduced under Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Samhita (BNSS) focuses on transparency in evidence collection?

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44

Which of the following statements about Gaganyaan Mission is correct?

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45

Who among the following established the Brahmo Samaj in 1828?

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46

Which mountain pass connects Sikkim to Tibet and is strategically significant?

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47

The ‘Blue Flag’ certification is given to which of the following?

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48

Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct option: Assertion (A): The President of India can dissolve the Lok Sabha before its term ends. Reason (R): The President acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.

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49

Who authored the book 'The Story of My Experiments with Truth'?

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50

Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the Election Commission of India?

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Section 3

Quantitative Aptitude

25 questions Section Test
51

If 40 percent of P = 0.5 of Q = $\frac{2}{7}$ of R, find P : Q : R.

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52

A train travels 1.5 km in 2 minutes. How far does it travel in 2 hours and 10 minutes? 97.5 km

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53

Simplify: 1 / (5 + $\sqrt{3}$) + 1 / (5 - $\sqrt{3}$)

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54

The expenditure of a family on Rent, Utilities, and Travel is in the ratio 3 : 5 : 2. If the cost of Rent rises by 10 percent, Utilities falls by 5 percent, and Travel rises by 20 percent, what is the overall percent change in the total household expenditure?

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55

C and D invested Rs 80,000 and Rs 1,50,000 respectively. C remained for 12 months and D for 8 months. What is the total profit if C's share is Rs 24,000?

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56

Two individuals, X and Y, rent a ground. X places 10 buffaloes for 5 months and 12 sheep for 3 months. Y places 15 sheep for 4 months and 8 buffaloes for 6 months. If 2 buffaloes consume the same amount of food as 5 sheep, what portion of the rent should X cover?

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57

Two individuals, P and Q rent a pasture. P uses 18 goats for a duration of 4 months and 25 hens for 5 months, and Q uses 20 goats for 3 months. If 3 goats are equivalent to 10 hens, determine P's portion of the rent.

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58

Three classes of students have average scores 70, 75, and 80 respectively. If the number of students in the three classes is in the ratio 4:1:5, what is the overall average score?

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59

The average of 9 items is 55. If the average of the first four is 52 and the average of the last four is 58, find the 5th number.

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60

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61

Evaluate: 33(1/3)% of 900 liters + 14(2/7)% of 490 liters.

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62

A salesman sells laptops at Rs 40,000 each, earning a 3 percent commission, and phones at Rs 10,000 each, with a 5 percent commission. If he sells 2 laptops and 5 phones per week, what will be his total commission earned in 4 weeks?

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63

A fruit seller sells apples at a profit of 10 percent on the cost price but uses a weight that is 10 percent less than the actual weight. Find his total profit percentage.

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64

The profit made on an item sold for Rs 1500 is equal to the loss incurred when it is sold for Rs 1200. What will be the profit or loss percentage if the item is sold for Rs 1400?

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65

A retailer sells a shirt for Rs X and earns a profit of 25 percent. For a special sale, he marks the same shirt at Rs 2X. At the offer, he provides a discount of 20 percent. What will be the percentage profit that he will make during the sale? 80 percent

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66

A shopkeeper marked an item 40 percent above its cost price. During a sale, he offered a discount of 20 percent. What was his profit percentage?

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67

A shopkeeper marks his goods at 50 percent above the cost price. He allows a discount of 20 percent on the marked price. If he also gives an additional cash discount of Rs 500, and still makes a profit of 10 percent on the cost price, what is the cost price of the goods?

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68

How many approximate kgs of rice costing Rs 60 per kg must be mixed with 10 kg of rice costing Rs 40 per kg so that a 15 percent profit may be obtained by selling the mixture at Rs 57.50 per kg?

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69

The perimeter of a rectangle is 120 cm. If the ratio of length to width is 3:2, find the length of the diagonal.

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70

P lent Rs 8000 for a duration of 3 years and Rs 5000 to Q for a period of 5 years, both at the same simple interest rate. In total, he received Rs 3450 as interest from both borrowers. What is the rate of interest per annum? 12 percent

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71

A rectangular prism has base area of 40 cm sq. If height is decreased by 10 percent (original height was 15 cm), what is the new volume?

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72

A cube's side length is increased by 20 percent. What is the percentage increase in its surface area?

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73

A painter has 150 m of tape. He can use this tape to define the boundary of a circular mural or a square mural. If he wants to maximize the enclosed area, what is the approximate ratio of the area of the largest possible circular mural to the area of the largest possible square mural, using the entire 150 m of tape?

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74

A vertical cylindrical container is filled with water. A solid metallic sphere of radius 9 cm is immersed completely, and the water level rises by 4 cm. What is the radius of the cylinder?

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75

A sector of a circle has a central angle of 90 degrees and a radius of 10 cm. Another sector of the same circle has a central angle of pi/4 radians. What is the ratio of the area of the first sector to the area of the second sector? 3:1

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Section 4

English Comprehension

25 questions Section Test
76

Choose the word that is similar in meaning to OBSCURE.

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77

Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to LEARNED.

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78

Select the correct meaning of the idiom “Lose one’s temper.”

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79

Pick the antonym of the word PRAISE.

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80

Choose the correctly spelled word for the medical term meaning ‘loss of memory’. Amneesia

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81

Choose the correct one-word substitute for a temporary break or gap in continuity.

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82

Select the appropriate option to complete the sentence: So delicate ___ the negotiations that a single leak could have ruined them.

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83

Select the correct option: Her interpretation was ___ insightful; it was nearly transformative.

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84

Choose the correct option: The reforms, though presented as economic, were actually an attempt to ______ opposition under austerity.

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85

Identify the segment with an error: The higher the rank (1)/ the greater became (2)/ the responsibility and (3)/ expectation of restraint. (4)

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86

Find the error in the sentence: The report’s emphasis on digital growth (1)/ overlook key disparities (2)/ in connectivity and access (3)/ across regions. (4)

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87

Convert the sentence from Active to Passive Voice: Why did the editor overlook the stylistic issues?

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88

Choose the sentence containing a homonym of the highlighted word: The historian referred to a bailey in the medieval castle design.

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89

Convert the following from Passive to Active Voice: It has been alleged that data was leaked by company employees.

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90

Read the passage and answer: Groupthink is a concept that emphasizes how the desire for harmony within a group can overshadow rational judgment. When individuals fear standing out or disrupting unity, they often suppress their true opinions, leading to collective decisions that are neither logical nor well-examined. This tendency reflects a broader trait of social conformity, where people align with majority views simply to feel accepted or avoid conflict. A well-known real-world example of groupthink can be seen in the Bay of Pigs invasion, where U.S. policymakers failed to challenge flawed assumptions because dissent was discouraged. In today’s world, digital media further amplifies conformity. Social platforms reward popular opinions with likes, shares, and visibility, subtly pressuring users to adopt mainstream views while discouraging alternatives. Opinions that gain traction quickly appear more credible, making individuals hesitant to voice disagreement. To counter the negative effects of groupthink, experts propose encouraging open dialogue, welcoming dissent, and creating environments where questioning ideas is valued rather than suppressed. Diverse perspectives and constructive criticism help groups make more balanced and well-reasoned decisions. What does the concept of groupthink emphasize?

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91

According to the passage, which trait explains social conformity?

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92

Which real-world event is mentioned as an example of groupthink?

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93

How does digital media encourage conformity, according to the passage?

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94

What is proposed as a solution to groupthink?

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95

Choose the correct phrase to replace the underlined part: She insisted me to take the medicines.

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96

Choose the correct option: No one knows where is he hiding.

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97

Convert the sentence to Indirect Speech: He said, “I am not feeling well.”

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98

Convert the sentence to Direct Speech: The manager told the team that punctuality must be maintained.

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99

Rearrange the following sentences to form a logical order: 1. The survey responses were collected. 2. The data was analyzed. 3. Insights were shared with management. 4. Recommendations were implemented.

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100

Arrange the sentences into a coherent paragraph: 1. Earth’s temperature depends on solar radiation and atmospheric gases. 2. Human actions increase greenhouse gas emissions. 3. Climate change is caused by both natural and human factors. 4. Reducing emissions is essential to restore balance.

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