SSC Exams · SSC CGL

SSC CGL 2025 Tier 1 (Held On: 12 Sept, 2025 Shift 2)

Staff Selection Commission Combined Graduate Level Examination

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Section 1

General Instructions:

The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer at the top right corner of screen will display the remaining time available for you to complete the examination. When the timer reaches zero, the examination will end by itself. You need not terminate the examination or submit your paper. The Question Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of each question using one of the following symbols:

The Mark For Review status for a question simply indicates that you would like to look at that question again. If a question is answered, but marked for review, then the answer will be considered for evaluation unless the status is modified by the candidate.

Section 2

General Intelligence

25 questions Section Test
Q1

In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives. Liberty : Autonomy :: Equality : ?

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Q2

Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. BGL, GLQ, LQV, QVA, ?

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Q3

Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. DAG, FCI, ?, JGM, LIO

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Q4

Which of the following alternatives will replace the question mark? Atom, Molecule, Cell, ?

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Q5

Complete the series: 150, 183, 219, 258, ?

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Q6

What will come at the place of question mark? 2, 12, 30, 56, 90, ?

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Q7

Read the following statement carefully and identify the conclusion that follows. Statement: Most farmers in the region depend on monsoon rains for irrigation. Conclusions: I. The region does not have proper irrigation infrastructure. II. A weak monsoon may reduce agricultural output.

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Q8

Identify the assumptions that must hold for the statement to be valid. Statement: The discovery of exoplanets in habitable zones around distant stars has provided exciting prospects for the search for extraterrestrial life, yet the vast distances and technological limitations pose significant obstacles to direct exploration.

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Q9

How many meaningful four-letter English words can be formed using the first, second, third, and sixth letters of the word 'PROVIDE', using each letter only once in each word?

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Q10

Which of the following addresses are identical to each other? 1. Rajeev Chauhan 3/5, Lotus Enclave, Kanpur, 208012 2. Rajeev Chauhan 3-5, Lotus Enclave, Kanpur, 208012 3. Rajeev Chauhan 3-5, Lotus Enclave, Kanpur, 208012 4. Rajeev Chauhan 3-5, Lotus Enclave, Kanpur, 208002

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Q11

Each of the letters in the word STAMINA is arranged in alphabetical order. How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the letter that is first from the left and the one that is fourth from the right in the new letter-cluster formed?

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Q12

Find the best option that best completes the analogy. NPR : OQS :: XYZ : ?

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Q13

In a row of 50 books, Book A is 15th from left and Book B is 20th from right. How many books lie between them?

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Q14

In each of the following questions, the second word is formed by rearranging the letters of the first word according to a specific pattern. Identify that pattern and apply the same to the third word. NUMERAL : UEALRMN :: ALGEBRA : ?

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Q15

Find the odd one out from the given alternatives.

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Q16

If A is the son of B, and B is the brother of C, how is C related to A?

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Q17

One number is not like the others: 1331, 2197, 3375, 4096

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Q18

Find the number that breaks the pattern: 2, 5, 10, 17, 28, 40, 58

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Q19

In a certain code language, each letter is assigned a unique digit. If MOUSE is coded as 45291 and RAT as 786, how is STORE coded?

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Q20

If 7 $ 3 = 58 and 6 $ 2 = 40, what is 5 $ 1?

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Q21

Pointing to a girl, a woman says, 'She is the daughter of my mother's only daughter.' How is the girl related to the woman?

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Q22

A woman says, 'This man's son's sister is my daughter.' How is the woman related to the man?

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Q23

Two numbers are in the ratio 7:9, and their sum is 128. Find the numbers.

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Q24

If 16 ÷ 11 = A and 5 ÷ 2 = B, and A % B = (A × B) - 1, then what is A % B?

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Q25

If the sum of 28 and 22 is multiplied by 8, what is the result?

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Section 3

General Awareness

25 questions Section Test
Q26

Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Assertion (A): Humayun's Tomb was the first major Mughal garden tomb and directly inspired the design of the Taj Mahal. Reason (R): It introduced the charbagh garden layout and double-domed mausoleum style that became characteristic of later Mughal architecture.

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Q27

Which ancient ruler's administration is noted for its highly centralized structure?

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Q28

Which of the following correctly reflects the evolution of Indian classical music?

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Q29

Consider the following statements about the phases of long jump: 1) The athlete attains maximum momentum by running on the runway before take-off. 2) During take-off, the athlete pushes off with the weaker foot to maintain balance. Which statement(s) is/are correct?

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Q30

Mary Kom's most recent international gold medal was won at which tournament?

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Q31

The Regulating Act of 1773 primarily introduced changes in the Company's administration in which two distinct areas?

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Q32

Consider the following statements regarding India's water-sharing treaties with its neighbours: 1) The Mahakali Treaty signed with Nepal in 1996 includes provisions for integrated development of the Mahakali River and Pancheshwar Project. 2) The Ganga Water Treaty signed with Bangladesh in 1996 allows for the sharing of Ganga waters at Farakka. Which statement(s) is/are correct?

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Q33

Fill in the blank: Under the SLKIC vertical of Khelo India, _____ Kendriya Vidyalayas have been adopted in partnership with KVS.

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Q34

Consider the following statements about 'The Adventures of Kakababu, Volume 1' by Sunil Gangopadhyay. Which statement(s) is/are correct?

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Q35

Which Indian political leader addressed a special session in 2025 on 'Environment, COP-30, and Global Health'?

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Q36

Which of the following types of landslides involves backward rotation of the slipping material?

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Q37

What is meant by population density?

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Q38

Assertion (A): Population explosion occurs when death rates decline rapidly but birth rates remain high. Reason (R): Societal reproductive behavior changes instantly with improvements in healthcare.

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Q39

Which of the following best reflects the fundamental objective of applying generative design in aerospace systems engineering?

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Q40

The function of lysosomes in cells is:

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Q41

Which of the following statements regarding Article 270 are correct?

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Q42

If Earth's radius were reduced by 1% while its mass remained unchanged, what would be the effect on the gravitational acceleration at its surface?

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Q43

Under Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), what is the maximum period for which a person can be held in police custody in total, even if remanded periodically by a magistrate?

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Q44

What is the age range for farmers to enrol in the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maandhan Yojana (PM-KMY)?

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Q45

Assertion (A): UDAN Scheme improves regional air connectivity. Reason (R): It provides financial viability gap funding to airlines.

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Q46

According to the Global Cities Index 2025 by Oxford Economics, which two cities retained their top positions?

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Q47

Which of the following statements about light industries is correct?

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Q48

Schedule VII of the Constitution contains:

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Q49

A coastal city implements a plan to build sea walls and elevate buildings in response to rising sea levels. This action primarily falls under which category of climate change response?

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Q50

What specific physical quantity ensures a satellite maintains its orbit without continuous propulsion?

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Section 4

Quantitative Aptitude

25 questions Section Test
Q51

Let x = √3 + √15 and y = √8 + √2. Which is greater?

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Q52

The number of red, blue, and green marbles in a bag is in the ratio 3 : 4 : 6. If 20 red marbles, 15 blue marbles, and an unknown number of green marbles are added, the ratio becomes 4 : 5 : 7. Determine the number of green marbles added.

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Q53

Evaluate the continued fraction: x = 2 + 1/(3 + 1/4)

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Q54

A and B invest ₹40,000 and ₹60,000 respectively in a business. What is A's share in a profit of ₹50,000?

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Q55

A and B contribute to a business investment in the ratio 3:5. They earn a profit of ₹64,000. A is a working partner and receives 10% of the profit extra. What is A's total share?

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Q56

In a team of 75 employees, the average monthly sales per employee is ₹1.8 lakh. If 30 junior employees average ₹1.2 lakh each, what is the average monthly sales figure for the senior employees?

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Q57

The price of petrol increased by 5%. Before the hike, the price was ₹82 per litre. A man travels 3045 km every month and his car gives a mileage of 15 km/litre. What is the increase in monthly expenditure?

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Q58

A company placed an order for 20 high-end laptops and some standard desktops. Laptop price was 5 times desktop price. Due to an error, the quantities were interchanged, increasing the bill by 80%. What was the ratio of laptops to desktops in the original order?

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Q59

Find the compound interest on ₹8,000 at 12% per annum for 3 years 4 months, compounded annually.

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Q60

A shopkeeper mixes red, blue and green candies in the ratio 1:1:2 and sells the mixture at 2 candies for ₹10. What is his approximate gain or loss percentage?

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Q61

The ratio of boys to girls in a school is 7:5. If 20 more girls join, the new ratio becomes 7:6. What was the total number of students initially?

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Q62

A, B and C can complete a job in 30, 45 and 90 days respectively. A works every day, while B and C join A every fifth day. How long will it take to finish the task?

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Q63

A 100-litre solution contains acid and water in the ratio 3:2. Some solution is removed and replaced with pure acid. If the final ratio becomes 7:3, how many litres were replaced?

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Q64

The ratio of efficiencies of two workers P and Q is 5:2. If P completes a project in 12 days, how many days will Q take?

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Q65

A car and an SUV move on a circular track of circumference 1500 m. The SUV starts 600 m ahead. Speeds are 15 m/s and 10 m/s. How far will the car travel when it first overtakes the SUV?

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Q66

A circular park has a radius of 14 m. If a 1.5 m wide path is built around it, what is the approximate area of the path?

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Q67

What is 5π/4 radians in degrees?

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Q68

The line y = -x + 4 passes through which of the following points?

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Q69

What is the central angle of a sector with an arc length of 10 cm in a circle of radius 5 cm?

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Q70

If tan(90° − A) = √3, what is sin A?

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Q71

If x = √7, determine the value of x + 1/x.

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Q72

Two triangles are similar with sides in the ratio 3:5. What is the ratio of their areas?

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Q73

If x = (2 + √3)/(2 − √3), determine the value of x² + x − 9.

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Q74

The angles of a cyclic quadrilateral are in the ratio 1:2:3:4. What is the measure of the smallest angle?

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Q75

If sec A = 13/12 and A is acute, find sin A.

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Section 5

English Comprehension

25 questions Section Test
Q76

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: ABNEGATE

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Q77

Choose the correct meaning of the idiom: Move heaven and earth

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Q78

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word: Puissant

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Q79

Identify the misspelt word.

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Q80

Spot the correct spelling of a drug-effect psychology field.

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Q81

Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 'A person who abstains from all forms of indulgence'.

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Q82

Select the correct option: Neither the principal investigator _____ the co-authors anticipated the backlash.

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Q83

Select the correct option: The board will convene next Friday, _____ final approval is expected.

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Q84

Select the correct option: Nothing short of a paradigm shift will _____ the entrenched bureaucratic inertia.

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Q85

Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: Much of what appears to be coordination (1)/ among the regulatory bodies and private stakeholders (2)/ are, in fact, coincidental overlaps (3)/ caused by differing mandates. (4)

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Q86

Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: That the framework lacks provisions for backward compatibility (1)/ is less problematic than the assumption (2)/ that all peripheral institutions will, without coercion, (3)/ adheres to the central directive as framed. (4)

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Q87

Change the following from active to passive: People can seldom access archived manuscripts without clearance.

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Q88

Select the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word 'gules'.

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Q89

Convert the sentence from passive voice to active voice: The package is delivered to the office every morning.

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Q90

According to the passage, what primary democratic function does social media serve?

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Q91

What makes social media a double-edged tool in democratic societies?

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Q92

According to the paragraph, which element amplifies marginalized voices through social media?

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Q93

What does the author suggest as a critical solution to social media misuse in democracies?

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Q94

In the author's view, what determines whether social media supports or undermines democracy?

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Q95

Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part: No sooner had I reached the station when the train departed.

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Q96

Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part: The manager asked to the clerk to submit the report.

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Q97

Convert the following direct speech into indirect speech: She said, 'I saw him last night.'

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Q98

Convert the following indirect speech into direct speech: The librarian said that silence must be maintained in the library.

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Q99

Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph: 1. Consequently, effective communication hinges on more than just the words we choose. 2. Non-verbal cues, such as tone of voice, facial expressions, and body language, can convey more meaning than the verbal message itself. 3. Communication is a complex process involving the exchange of information, ideas, and feelings between individuals. 4. It's often the subtle signals that tell us how a message is truly being received or intended.

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Q100

Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph: 1. A key strategy is to diversify energy sources, transitioning from fossil fuels to renewable alternatives. 2. To mitigate the worst effects of climate change, the global community must drastically reduce its reliance on carbon-intensive energy production. 3. This shift not only decreases greenhouse gas emissions but also improves air quality and creates new economic opportunities. 4. Additionally, policies that promote energy efficiency in buildings and transportation can further lower overall energy consumption.

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