SSC Exams · SSC CGL

SSC CGL 2025 Tier 1 (Held On: 12 Sept, 2025 Shift 1)

Staff Selection Commission Combined Graduate Level Examination

Start Mock Test Official SSC Notice Score: 0 / 0
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Section 1

General Instructions:

The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer at the top right corner of screen will display the remaining time available for you to complete the examination. When the timer reaches zero, the examination will end by itself. You need not terminate the examination or submit your paper. The Question Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of each question using one of the following symbols:

The Mark For Review status for a question simply indicates that you would like to look at that question again. If a question is answered, but marked for review, then the answer will be considered for evaluation unless the status is modified by the candidate.

Section 2

General Intelligence

12 questions Section Test
Q1

In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.
Watt : Power :: Pascal : ?

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Learn Topic
Q2

In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.
Mekong : Tibet :: Amazon : ?

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Q3

Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
MIN,
NJM,
OKL,
PLK, ?

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Q4

Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
C G K,
G K O,
K O S,
O S W, ?

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Q5

Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
BRF ,
EUH ,
HXJ ,
KAL , ?

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Q6

Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series:
WZWT,
WVOH,
WRGV,
WNYJ, ?

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Q7

Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series:
MCFI,
NEKP,
OGPW,
PIUD, ?

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Q8

What comes next:
3, 12, 7, 16, 11, 20, 15, ?

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Q9

Each of the letters in the word STUDENT is arranged in alphabetical order.
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the letter that is second from the left and the one that is fourth from the right in the new letter-cluster formed?

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Q10

Which of the following addresses are identical to each other:
1. Arjun Mehta A-101, Emerald Towers, Surat, 395001
2. Arjun Mehta A-101, Emerald Tower, Surat, 395001
3. Arjun M. A-101, Emerald Tower, Surat, 395001
4. Arjun Mehta A-101, Emerald Tower, Surat, 395001

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Q11

Which of the following is/are identical to the address given:
Meenal Gupta 102, Silver Oaks, Sector 12, Noida, 201301

1. Meenal Gupta 102, Silver Oaks, Sector 12, Noida, 201301
2. Meenal Gupta 102, Silver Oaks, Sector-12, Noida, 201301
3. Meenal Gupta 102, Silver Oaks, Sector 12, Noida 201301
4. Meenal Gupta 102, Silver Oaks, Sector 12, Noida, 201302

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Q12

Find the option that best completes the analogy.
AG : IO :: CM : ?

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Section 3

Reasoning

13 questions Section Test
Q13

A is facing North. B is seated second to the right of A.
Who is sitting immediately to the left of B?

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Q14

In the following question, the second word is related to the first word by a specific pattern of letter transformation. Identify the same pattern and apply it to the third word to find the correct option that completes the analogy.
TIME : VJOG :: WORD : ?

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Q15

In each of the following questions, a specific pattern such as reversal or rearrangement has been applied to the first word to get the second. Apply the same pattern to the third word and find the correct answer from the given options. GNIDAER : READING :: NOITULOS : ?

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Q16

In each of the following questions, the first word is coded to form the second word using a specific rearrangement and/or substitution rule. Apply the same rule to the third word to determine the correct corresponding word from the given alternatives. AYRRJC :: CATTLE :: NCPDCAR : ?

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Q17

Identify the odd one: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 20

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Q18

Which of the following is the odd one out?

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Q19

Rani said, "The man in the photo is my mother's son-in-law." Who is the man to Rani?

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Q20

In each of the following questions, a group of three numbers/symbols is given in each option. Identify the group that does NOT follow the same pattern as the others.

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Q21

In each of the following questions, a group of three numbers/symbols is given in each option. Identify the group that does NOT follow the same pattern as the others.

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Q22

Pointing to a man, a woman said, "His mother is the only daughter of my father." How is the man related to the woman?

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Q23

Pointing to a woman, John says, "She is the wife of my uncle's only son." How is the woman related to John?

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Q24

A man said, "My mother's husband's only son is the father of your sister's brother." How is the man related to you?

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Q25

If # = $\times$ , @ = -, $ = +, then evaluate: 9 # 2 @ 3 $ 1

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Section 4

General Awareness

25 questions Section Test
Q26

Which of the following features distinguishes the Elephanta Caves from other rock-cut sites of early India?

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Q27

Read the statements about the Goncha Festival of Bastar: 1.) Tupki, a mock gun made of bamboo, uses Goncha fruit as bullets. 2.) The chariot procession was started by Chalukya rulers. 3.) Rath Yatra begins on Ashadh Shukla Dashmi and ends on Dutiya. Which of the above statements are correct?

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Q28

Fill in the blanks: In Carnatic music, a laghu with five beats is known as ____ jaati.

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Q29

Which of the following statements about Judo is correct?

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Q30

Where and when will the 59th National Cross Country Championships - 2025 be held?

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Q31

What is the core structural focus of the 2024 India-UAE Bilateral Investment Treaty (BIT) within India's international investment strategy?

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Q32

Fill in the blanks: The Santosh Trophy 2022-23 final was uniquely held in _____, where Karnataka defeated Meghalaya to win the title after 54 years.

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Q33

Which of the following statements best captures the essence of "Landscapes of Loss: The Story of an Indian Drought" by Kavitha Iyer?

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Q34

Consider the following statements about glacial landforms: Statement 1: Hanging valleys are often found opening into main glacial valleys at higher elevations. Statement 2: Spurs of such hanging valleys are frequently truncated into triangular facets. Which of the following Statements is/are Correct?

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Q35

What is the primary function of the Crew Escape System (CES) on ISRO's Human Rated LVM3 (HLVM3) rocket?

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Q36

Which of the following statements about Justice Sanjiv Khanna is/are true? 1. He is the 51st Chief Justice of India 2. He succeeded Justice D.Y. Chandrachud 3. He served as CJI from 2023

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Q37

Which of the following objectives are part of the National Population Policy (NPP) 2000? 1. Providing free and compulsory education up to 14 years of age 2. Increasing fertility rate to ensure demographic dividend 3. Reducing infant mortality rate below 30 per 1000 live births 4. Promoting delayed marriage for girls

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Q38

Which pathway in cellular respiration generates the most ATP?

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Q39

Arrange the following events in chronological order: a. Eastern Zonal Council meeting 2022 b. States Reorganisation Act passed c. First Central Zonal Council meeting

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Q40

Which of the following most accurately describes the legal character of the right to property under Article 300A of the Indian Constitution?

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Q41

For a rigid body, the angular velocity of any particle about a given axis of rotation is:

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Q42

The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA) places emphasis on the use of technology to ensure the authenticity of evidence. This is particularly relevant for:

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Q43

Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct options: Assertion (A) : The One Nation One Ration Card ensures portability of food grains. Reason (R) : It uses Aadhaar-enabled biometric authentication.

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Q44

Cheraw, the bamboo dance performed using crossed bamboo sticks, is a folk dance of which state?

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Q45

What is a key factor assessed in the Global Firepower Military Strength Ranking 2025?

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Q46

Which of the following correctly describes cooperative sector industries?

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Q47

Education is now placed under which list after the 42nd Amendment?

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Q48

What is the main objective of the National Framework for Climate Services (NFCS) launched in 2024?

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Q49

Argon is produced in Earth's crust via?

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Q50

Which of the following is true about Fundamental Rights and DPSPs?

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Section 5

Quantitative Aptitude

25 questions Section Test
Q51

Arrange the fractions $1/2, 2/3, 3/4$ and $4/5$ in ascending order.

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Q52

Simplify: $(2.5 + 3.6) - 1.9$

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Q53

Evaluate: $(1/2 + 1/4) / (3/4)$

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Q54

From a sample of 200 software engineers, determine the ratio of those proficient in Python to those proficient in Java using the given information: Proficient in Python and Java: 50, Proficient in Python only: 70, Proficient in Java only: 60, Proficient in neither language: 20

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Q55

Arvind started a business by investing ₹80,000. After 4 months, Bhavin joined with ₹1,20,000. At the end of 8 months from the start, Chandan joined with ₹1,60,000. If the total profit is ₹1,05,000 at the end of the year, find the share of Chandan.

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Q56

A and B start a business. A invests ₹80,000 for 9 months, B invests ₹1,20,000 for 6 months. What is B's share of a ₹45,000 profit?

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Q57

What is the average of all integers between 100 and 250 that are exactly divisible by 11?

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Q58

The average of 15 numbers is 80. The average of the first 6 numbers is 72. The average of the next 6 numbers is 25% more than the average of the first 6 numbers. The 13th number is 8 more than the 15th number, and the 14th number is 10 less than the 15th number. What is the average of the 13th and 14th numbers?

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Q59

A landlord bought a flat for ₹8,00,000. He wants to earn a 9% annual return on his investment after paying ₹2,000 per month for maintenance. What should be the monthly rent he charges?

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Q60

An amount is said to double in 5 years with compound interest. How many years will it take for the amount to grow to 8 times its original value?

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Q61

A sum becomes ₹6,600 in 2 years and ₹7,920 in 3 years at compound interest. What is the original principal?

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Q62

Suman purchased 25 liters of milk at ₹45 per liter and another 15 liters of milk at ₹50 per liter. She combined both quantities and then sold the entire mixture at ₹48 per liter. What was her total profit or loss?

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Q63

A toy manufacturer produced 1200 toy cars at a total cost of ₹90,000. He donated 200 cars to a charity event. For the rest, he announced a 10% discount on the market price of ₹120 per car. He also offered 2 toy cars free for every 8 toy cars purchased. If all 1200 toy cars were distributed, what is his overall gain or loss percentage?

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Q64

A retailer marks an air conditioner 80% above its cost price. He offers a first discount of 25% on the marked price. During a festive offer, an additional discount of 10% is applied on the already discounted price. If the final selling price is ₹15,552, what is the approximate cost price of the air conditioner?

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Q65

A 40-liter mixture contains juice and water in the ratio 5:3. How much water (in liters) must be added to this mixture to change the ratio of juice to water to 2:3?

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Q66

A is able to complete a task in 15 days, while B takes 20 days to finish the same task. If they collaborate and work together for 4 days, what fraction of the work will still remain?

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Q67

Two oils priced at ₹90 per kg and ₹150 per kg are blended and sold at ₹144 per kg, achieving a profit margin of 20%. What is the ratio of the two oils in the mixture?

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Q68

Three pipes, A, B, and C are capable of filling a tank in 6, 8, and 12 hours, respectively. When all three pipes are opened together, they operate for 2 hours before pipe C is closed. How much additional time will it take to completely fill the tank after that?

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Q69

A bullet train covers a fixed distance in 30 minutes at an average speed of 240 km/h. Due to track maintenance, it needs to be diverted, increasing the distance by 20%. If the train needs to arrive at its destination on time (i.e., in 30 minutes), what should its new average speed be in km/h?

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Q70

Two cars, X and Y, start from points 360 km apart and travel at constant speeds. If they move towards each other, they meet in 4 hours. If they move in the same direction, they meet in 12 hours. What is the speed of car X? (Assume X is the faster car).

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Q71

A circular pizza having a radius of 21 cm. If 75% of it is eaten, what is the area of pizza remaining?

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Q72

A ring-shaped disc has outer radius 10 cm and inner radius 7 cm. What is the approximate ratio of the ring's area to the whole outer circle?

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Q73

A bicycle wheel having a radius of 35 cm. What percentage of its circumference is covered in a quarter turn? (Use $\pi = 22/7$ )

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Q74

The line $y = mx + 5$ passes through (1,8). Find $m$ .

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Q75

Evaluate: 31³ + 18³ − 37³ + 210.

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Section 6

English Comprehension

25 questions Section Test
Q76

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: PERFIDIOUS

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Q77

Choose the correct meaning of idiom: Hobson's choice

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Q78

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. Perfidious

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Q79

Identify the misspelt word

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Q80

Spot the correct spelling of a CSF-shunt procedure.

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Q81

Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 'An official reprimand or strong criticism'.

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Q82

Select the correct option: The startup scaled so rapidly that its infrastructure could ____ keep pace.

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Q83

Select the correct option: Rare though the phenomenon is, it can occur ___ prolonged drought conditions.

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Q84

Select the correct option: While the proposal appeared pragmatic on paper, its implementation proved ____ complicated than expected.

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Q85

Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: That the report failed to address the root causes (1)/ of the community unrest were surprising (2)/ given the exhaustive data (3)/ compiled over several months. (4)

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Q86

Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: What renders the draft legislation particularly contentious is not its proposed realignment of fiscal powers per se, (1)/ but that it presumes, without empirical substantiation, (2)/ a fiscal equivalence among states whose developmental baselines are (3)/ incommensurable by any normative metric. (4)

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Q87

Change the following from active to passive: They have been neglecting maintenance of the archives for years.

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Q88

Select the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word: The choir began the introit at the priest's signal.

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Q89

Convert the sentence provided below from its passive voice structure to an active voice structure: It was being suggested by multiple sources that the operation had been compromised internally.

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Q90

According to the passage, how is wisdom primarily acquired?

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Q91

What does the author mean by "wisdom enriches the soul"?

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Q92

Who, according to the author, can be wise despite lacking formal education?

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Q93

What is the central contrast drawn in the passage?

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Q94

According to the author, why has the gap between education and wisdom widened in recent times?

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Q95

Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: She has the reputation to be a kind woman.

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Q96

Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: The doctor advised him to avoid eating sweets and doing exercise regularly.

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Q97

A sentence is provided in direct speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding indirect speech. He asked me, "Have you done your homework?"

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Q98

A sentence is provided in indirect speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding direct speech. He said that he would join the meeting after lunch.

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Q99

Rearrange the following sentences in correct order to make a logical passage: 1. A media strategy was framed based on outreach results. 2. Demographic metrics were tracked from campaign dashboards. 3. User interactions were collected across platforms. 4. Analysts segmented users by age and behavior.

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Q100

Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph: 1. It is a process that involves the systematic and objective investigation of a subject to discover new facts or to confirm existing ones. 2. Research is a foundational pillar of academic and scientific progress. 3. This can be either theoretical, aiming to expand knowledge, or applied, seeking to solve a practical problem. 4. The findings of this investigation are then documented and peer-reviewed to ensure validity and credibility.

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