SSC Exams · SSC JE Mechanical

SSC JE (Mechanical) Official Paper-I (Held On: 05 Jun, 2024 Shift 2) (English)

SSC JE (Mechanical) Official Paper-I (Held On: 05 Jun, 2024 Shift 2) (English) with official questions, answers, and practice mock test.
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Section 1

General Intelligence and Reasoning

47 questions Section Test
1

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 2, 5, 13, 28, 52, 87, ?

MCQ
2

In a certain code language, ‘HAIR’ is coded as ‘7935’ and ‘AGED’ is coded as ‘4892’. What is the code for ‘A’ in the given language?

MCQ
3

The position(s) of how many letters will remain unchanged if each of the letters in the word STAMPED is arranged in the English alphabetical order?

MCQ
4

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All frames are rocks. All rocks are clips. All clips are towels. Conclusion (I): All frames are towels. Conclusion (II): At least some clips are frames.

MCQ
5

If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−‘, what will come in place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following equation? 10 B 2 D 15 A 3 C 7 = ?

MCQ
6

In a certain code language, ‘FLEW’ is coded as ‘8462’ and ‘LORD’ is coded as ‘9736’. What is the code for ‘L’ in the given code language?

MCQ
7

In a certain code language, A + B means ‘A is the sister of B’ A # B means ‘A is the brother of B’ A × B means ‘A is the wife of B’ A @ B means ‘A is the father of B’ Based on the above, how is E related to M if ‘E # F × H @ G + M’?

MCQ
8

This question consists of a pair of words which have a certain relationship to each other. Select the pair which has the same relationship. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.) Altimeter : Altitudes

MCQ
9

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? DMY, BKW, ZIU, XGS, ?

MCQ
10

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series. 6, 3, 12, 6, 24, ?, 48, 24, 96

MCQ
11

In a certain code language, ‘apple is healthy’ is written as ‘di jl ew’ and ‘apple is red’ is written as ‘di ko ew’. How is ‘red’ written in the given language?

MCQ
12

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? INJ, LQM, OTP, RWS, ?

MCQ
13

Six friends Abby, Bunny, Chan, Dolly, Emma and Fanny have different weights. Dolly’s weight is an odd number. Dolly is heavier than Emma but not the heaviest. Chan is heavier than Fanny but lighter than Dolly. Chan is not heavier than Emma but is heavier than Fanny and Abby. Abby’s weight is not an odd number. The lightest weight is 45 kilograms and the heaviest weight is 80 kilograms. Who is the heaviest person in the group?

MCQ
14

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? RQO, LKI, FEC, ZYW, TSQ, ?

MCQ
15

The position(s) of how many letters will remain unchanged if each of the letters in the word FOREIGN is arranged in the English alphabetical order?

MCQ
16

A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (not necessarily in the same order). B is sitting to the immediate right of F and immediate left of C. C is sitting to the immediate left of E. A is sitting to the immediate right of E and to the immediate left of D. Who is sitting to the immediate left of F?

MCQ
17

Select the word-pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one expressed in the pair of words given below. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.) Mycology : Fungi

MCQ
18

Madan starts from point A and drives 4 km towards the South. He then takes a left turn and drives 5 km. he then takes a right turn and drives 2 km. He then takes another right turn and drives 3 km. He takes a final right turn and drives 6 km to reach point B. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90 degrees turns only unless specified)

MCQ
19

Select the option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in meaningful and logical order. 1. Word 2. Paragraph 3. Sentence 4. Letter 5. Phrase

MCQ
20

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (45, 23, 73) (19, 27, 51)

MCQ
21

Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and complete the given pattern.

MCQ
22

What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘−’ are interchanged? 10 + 2 − 10 ÷ 5 × 10 =?

MCQ
23

In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the first number. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g., 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (6, 34) (8, 46)

MCQ
24

LQNR is related to PURV in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, OTQU is related to SXUY. To which of the following is GLIM related, following the same logic?

MCQ
25

LQKN is related to PUOR in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, INHK is related to MRLO. To which of the following is QVPS related, following the same logic?

MCQ
26

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (9, 576, 8) (7, 252, 6)

MCQ
27

What should come in place of ‘?’ in the given series? 394, 465, 536, 607, 678, ?

MCQ
28

142 is related to 92 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 255 is related to 205. To which of the following is 457 related following the same logic? (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

MCQ
29

Select the option figure that can replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.

MCQ
30

IMPU is related to LPSX in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, BEKN is related to EHNQ. To which of the following is CLQS related, following the same logic?

MCQ
31

What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘−’ are interchanged? 21 ÷ 15 × 52 + 13 – 7 = ?

MCQ
32

A, B, C, D, E, and F are sitting at a circular table facing the centre (not necessarily in the same order). A is to the immediate left of B, E is third to the right of B, D is to the immediate right of C. F is third to the right of C. Who are the immediate neighbours of E? a)A and B b)B and D c)D and F d)F and B

MCQ
33

In a certain code language, ‘SANG’ is coded as ‘3618’, and ‘RANG’ is coded as ‘6438’. What is the code for ‘S’ in that language?

MCQ
34

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: Some cars are grass. All trucks are cars. Conclusion 1: Some trucks are not cars. Conclusion 2: Some trucks are grass.

MCQ
35

What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘×’ are interchanged and ‘−’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged? 12 + 4 − 24 × 11 ÷ 13 = ?

MCQ
36

In a certain code language, ‘A + B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’, ‘A − B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’, ‘A × B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’ and ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’. How is B related to L if ‘B × G ÷ T + K − L’?

MCQ
37

STAR is related to TWCV in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, PARK is related to QDTO. To which of the following is MILK related, following the same logic?

MCQ
38

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

MCQ
39

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

MCQ
40

OB 8 is related to UE 3 in a certain way. In the same way, TO 11 is related to ZR 6. To which of the following is IB 8 related, following the same logic?

MCQ
41

Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following planets according to their size. 1. Mars 2. Jupiter 3. Venus 4. Earth 5. Mercury

MCQ
42

Jennifer starts from Point D and drives 3 km towards the north. She then takes a left turn and drives 10 km. She then takes another left turn and drives 6 km. She takes one more left turn and drives 5 km. She then takes a right turn and drives 3 km. She takes a final left turn and drives 5 km to reach point E. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should she drive in order to reach Point D again? (All turns are 90 degree turns only, unless specified)

MCQ
43

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

MCQ
44

Select the option in which the numbers share the same relationship as that shared by the given number triads. 120-100-60 240-220-180 (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole number, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13- Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed.)

MCQ
45

Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

MCQ
46

How many triangles are there in the given figure?

MCQ
47

15 is related to 230 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 4 is related to 65. To which of the following is 12 related following the same logic? (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting /multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

MCQ
Section 2

General Awareness

47 questions Section Test
48

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order KMO, HJL, EGI, BDF, ?

MCQ
49

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? MAT MIIT MOT MET

MCQ
50

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? LXC, OZD, RBE, UDF, ?

MCQ
51

What is the SI unit of force?

MCQ
52

The government of which of the following states launched the ‘Nand Baba Milk Mission’ scheme in June 2023?

MCQ
53

When was Swami Vivekananda born?

MCQ
54

The National Defense Fund is governed by an Executive Committee, which is chaired by the:

MCQ
55

The total number of bishops in a chess game is _____.

MCQ
56

Which of the following is the correct option for using 'justify' alignment to a paragraph in a document?

MCQ
57

Arachnids belong to which subphylum of the phylum Arthropoda?

MCQ
58

During which years did Khalji dynasty ruled over Delhi?

MCQ
59

It is a fact that if you drink from a plastic bottle and throw it in the dustbin, it will still be there when your grandchildren are old. What is the reason behind this?

MCQ
60

What is the primary focus of the ASPIRE scheme of the Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises, Government of India?

MCQ
61

You grew a small plant in a planter. On maturity, you observed that the plant has green stem, very few branches and the stem is so soft that you could easily break it with your hands. Under which category will you put this plant?

MCQ
62

The valency of Ca is 2+. The valency of O is 2−. What is the simplified chemical formula of Calcium oxide?

MCQ
63

Who introduced the Anusandhan National Research Foundation Bill, 2023, in the Lok Sabha?

MCQ
64

Who among the following musicians received the Padma Bhushan Award 2022 for his contributions in the field of art?

MCQ
65

Name the scheme launched by the Prime Minister on 17 September 2023 that aims to improve the lives of artisans.

MCQ
66

Which Chief Justice of India was sworn in as the acting President of India on 20thJuly 1969?

MCQ
67

Which of the following values is subtracted from the numerical value of temperature expressed in Kelvin to obtain the temperature in degrees Celsius?

MCQ
68

Which of the following is a heart-related disease?

MCQ
69

How do estuaries serve as critical habitats for various species?

MCQ
70

Which of the following places receives rainfall from the Bay of Bengal branch of southwest monsoon?

MCQ
71

Olympic medalist Vijender Singh belongs to which State of India?

MCQ
72

Private income minus tax payment minus non-tax payment will give us the estimate for ______.

MCQ
73

Identify the INCORRECT pair (railway zone and headquarters) from the following.

MCQ
74

Who was the leader of the temple entry movement in 1930 at Kalaram temple, Nashik?

MCQ
75

Which of the following Ministers introduced the Central Goods and Services Tax (Amendment) Bill 2023 and the Integrated Goods and Services Tax (Amendment) Bill 2023 in the Lok Sabha?

MCQ
76

Narmada Bachao Andolan (Save Narmada Movement) is a/an _________________.

MCQ
77

Match the following states with their percentage urban population in India, as per Census 2011. i) Kerala a) 10.04% ii) Madhya Pradesh b) 47.72% iii) Tamil Nadu c) 27.63% iv) Himachal Pradesh d) 48.45%

MCQ
78

What is the primary function of the Golgi apparatus?

MCQ
79

Who was elected as the 16th Speaker of the Himachal Pradesh Legislative Assembly in January 2023?

MCQ
80

Which of the following sentences is/are correct? i. According to the Census of India 2011, the total population of India is 141 crores. ii. Between 1911 and 1921, there was a negative rate of growth of India’s population. iii. Between 1901 and 1951, the average annual growth of India’s population did not exceed 1.33%.

MCQ
81

Which of the following articles of the Constitution of India provides measures to ensure the enforcement of Fundamental Rights?

MCQ
82

Which of the following is a macronutrient?

MCQ
83

Which organelle contains enzymes for digesting cellular waste and foreign materials?

MCQ
84

Which are the two major branches of the southwest monsoon in India?

MCQ
85

To cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired our national struggle for freedom is a ________ fundamental duty in the list of fundamental duties enshrined in our Indian Constitution.

MCQ
86

In plant cells, which organelle is responsible for photosynthesis?

MCQ
87

Which compound is used to neutralise fatty acids and convert them into salts in a process called saponification?

MCQ
88

In 1800, which of the following experimental achievements was made by William Nicholson?

MCQ
89

Which of the following is/are a gymnosperm?

MCQ
90

The particles that form the main part of the nucleus of an atom are together known as:

MCQ
91

Who said “a cherry that will drop into our mouth one day” about the kingdom of Awadh?

MCQ
92

If an earthquake happens at the sea floor and one tectonic plate dips under the another, this will most probably lead to a natural disaster known as:

MCQ
93

Which of the following is the shortcut key to create a new paragraph in MS Word?

MCQ
94

Which of the following committees was responsible for making recommendations that led to the 42nd Constitutional Amendment for the declaration of Fundamental Duties?

MCQ
Section 3

General Engineering Mechanical

106 questions Section Test
95

The office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner works under which Ministry of Government of India?

MCQ
96

_________ is referred to as paper taxes.

MCQ
97

Sange Meel Se Mulaqat is a documentary on the life of _______________, directed by Gautam Ghosh.

MCQ
98

Which of the following bacterial infections often affects the lungs?

MCQ
99

Name the first Finance Minister of independent India, whose statue was inaugurated by the Union Textiles Minister in Coimbatore .

MCQ
100

Who among the following is the author of the book published in December 2021, ‘The Monk Who Transformed Uttar Pradesh’?

MCQ
101

When the compressor and motor operate on the same shaft and are enclosed in a common casing, they are known as ___________.

MCQ
102

The surging phenomenon in a centrifugal compressor occurs when the refrigeration load decreases to below:

MCQ
103

The given figure shows the p-V diagram of:

MCQ
104

Which of the following is NOT the application for steam in industry?

MCQ
105

Which of the following refrigeration lubricants were the first synthetic oils to be used in the refrigeration industry?

MCQ
106

Variation of power input with speed at constant discharge in case of a centrifugal pump is _______________.

MCQ
107

A cantilever beam of length 2 m is subjected to a point load of 3 kN at a distance of 2 m and is subjected to a UDL of 3 kN/m for a total distance of 1.5 m from the fixed end. Calculate the shear force and bending moment at the fixed end.

MCQ
108

In case of a four-stroke diesel engine, the valve timing diagram is expressed in terms of _____.

MCQ
109

The location of centre of gravity for a sphere of radius (R) from the geometrical centre is at a distance of:

MCQ
110

‘No slip condition’ at a fixed surface is applicable to the flow of which type of fluids?

MCQ
111

The conventional depth of a cut considered in the parting operation using a lathe is ________.

MCQ
112

When a system is undergoing constant volume process, then heat transfer is equal to:

MCQ
113

When the fluid pressure is measured above the absolute zero pressure, the measured pressure is known as _________ .

MCQ
114

The process that involves passage of a higher-pressure fluid through a narrow constriction is called:

MCQ
115

What will not happen if the liquid has greater adhesion than cohesion?

MCQ
116

In the vapour compression refrigeration cycle with dry saturated vapour after compression, the entropy at the end of compression is the same as the _________.

MCQ
117

A cooling system is essentially required in internal combustion engines to __________.

MCQ
118

In actual air-conditioning applications, the heat rejection factor depends upon the:

MCQ
119

Which of the following gas combination is commonly used in oxyfuel-gas welding?

MCQ
120

Which of the following does NOT indicate that the refrigeration plant has to be charged with the refrigerant?

MCQ
121

Carbon steel contains a carbon percentage of about 0.21%. The possible type of carbon steel is ___________________ .

MCQ
122

Which of the following is NOT an example of Newtonian fluid?

MCQ
123

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the air pre-heater in a steam boiler?

MCQ
124

Which of the following is NOT a lathe turning operation?

MCQ
125

In a hot working process, metals are deformed _________.

MCQ
126

The distance of the centre of pressure from the free surface of the liquid is independent of the:

MCQ
127

The function of a halide torch is:

MCQ
128

The manometric head of a centrifugal pump is independent of which of the following factors?

MCQ
129

The fluid that becomes less viscous as it is sheared harder is called _________.

MCQ
130

The casting process that employs a permanent metal or ceramic mould, is ________.

MCQ
131

Which of the following is the correct designation of the refrigerant CCl3F?

MCQ
132

Which of the following is the assumption of Air Standard Cycles?

MCQ
133

Which of the following is NOT a part of a bucket type steam trap?

MCQ
134

In a boiler test, the water supplied to a boiler per hour is 2250 kg. The mass of water in the boiler at the end of the one hour is found to be less than that at commencement by 250 kg. The coal burnt per hour is 250 kg. What will be the actual evaporation per kg of the fuel burnt of the boiler?

MCQ
135

In the porter governor, the main constituent of controlling force is:

MCQ
136

Which of the following claims about the irreversibility of a system is true?

MCQ
137

The casting process that employs a wax pattern coated with a ceramic shell to make the mould, is ________.

MCQ
138

A complex geometry is placed in the X-Y plane. If the geometry is found to be symmetrical about the Y-axis, then which of the following is correct to calculate the centre of gravity?

MCQ
139

Total gradient line (or total energy line) is parallel to hydraulic gradient line with a vertical distance of _______________. (The symbols have their usual meanings.)

MCQ
140

Which of the following assertions related to drilling is true?

MCQ
141

Which of the following is NOT a type of sawing?

MCQ
142

The distance of centre of pressure from free surface of liquid is independent of:

MCQ
143

Which of the following evaporators are used for refrigeration units of 2 to 250 TR capacity?

MCQ
144

Which of the following machines violates the Kelvin Planck’s statement?

MCQ
145

For measurement of dryness fraction of steam, use of a separating calorimeter is suitable _______.

MCQ
146

The brake power of an engine can be measured by using a rope brake dynamometer. It is given by the expression: (Where, ‘D’ is diameter of the brake drum; ‘W’ is the weight and ‘S’ is the spring scale reading, ‘N’ Speed in rpm)

MCQ
147

The zeroth law of thermodynamics is based on the concept of ___________.

MCQ
148

What is the main benefit of double volute casing over single volute casing of a centrifugal pump?

MCQ
149

The maximum frictional force that comes in play when a body just begins to slide over the surface of another body is called:

MCQ
150

Which of the following statements is true about the fuel feed pump used for diesel engines?

MCQ
151

Which of the following is used to increase the temperature of steam above its saturation temperature?

MCQ
152

In which of the following areas is supercharging NOT so important?

MCQ
153

Which of the following statements is true about quantity governing?

MCQ
154

If N is the speed of the compressor in RPM, then what will be the isentropic power for a double acting compressor? Where W = work required by the compressor.

MCQ
155

Which of the following is correct for Pelton wheel? Where, α & β = guide blade angle at inlet and outlet, respectively ϴ & ɸ = vane angle at inlet and outlet, respectively

MCQ
156

In a milling machine, bulky workpieces of irregular shapes are clamped directly on the milling machine table by using ________.

MCQ
157

Which of the following statements is correct about the location of centre of pressure?

MCQ
158

What will be the power lost in friction assuming uniform pressure theory, when a vertical shaft of 100 mm diameter rotating at 150 r.p.m. rests on a flat end foot step bearing? The coefficient of friction is equal to 0.05 and the shaft carries a vertical load of 15 KN.

MCQ
159

For the laminar flow through circular pipes, shear stress distribution across a section is _________ .

MCQ
160

Determine the stress induced in the steel bars of reinforced concrete structure, if the modular ratio for steel and concrete is 14.5 and the stress applied on the concrete is 2.5 MPa.

MCQ
161

When pressure is measured above the atmospheric pressure, it is termed as:

MCQ
162

Which of the following statements best describes the second law of thermodynamics in relation to cyclic heat and work processes?

MCQ
163

Name the welding defect in which we observe a long and continuous visual separation line between the base metal and the heat affected zone.

MCQ
164

Which of the following impellers are best suited to medium sized pumps with a small amount of soft solids?

MCQ
165

If the power output of a hydraulic turbine is 100 kW and overall efficiency is 50%, then what will be the power supplied at the inlet of the turbine?

MCQ
166

Which of the following is NOT a frequent pattern-making process in manufacturing?

MCQ
167

What will be the value of the axial thrust on a wheel when there is no blade friction?

MCQ
168

In the process of brazing, the filler metal is drawn into the joint by means of ________.

MCQ
169

Which of the following statements is true about an SI engine in comparison to a CI engine?

MCQ
170

The Kaplan turbine is an example of _________ .

MCQ
171

Under which of the following conditions does the Francis turbine operate?

MCQ
172

Which of the following options is correct about four-stroke engines when compared with two-stroke engines?

MCQ
173

Enthalpy of a system in an open flow is given by h = u + pv, where pv is the _________.

MCQ
174

In the battery ignition system for SI engines, with increase in the speed, the ________.

MCQ
175

The heat rejection in Stirling cycle takes place at:

MCQ
176

If a point is to be at the free surface of a liquid open to the atmosphere, where the pressure is the atmospheric pressure Patm, then the gauge pressure at a depth ‘h’ from the free surface becomes:

MCQ
177

The mist lubrication system is generally used for _____.

MCQ
178

Which of the following factors is taken into consideration when determining the maximum suction height of a centrifugal pump?

MCQ
179

A sample of an ideal gas is compressed isothermally from volume of 4 l to 2 l. If the initial pressure is 2 atm, what is the final pressure?

MCQ
180

Which part of the arc welding element/equipment is consumable?

MCQ
181

If there is flow of real fluid at fixed boundary, then no-slip condition:

MCQ
182

The overall efficiency of the turbine is given by:

MCQ
183

Isochronism in a governor is desirable when _____.

MCQ
184

The mass transfer process in an open system is commonly modelled using the ______ equation.

MCQ
185

Which of the following prevents the high-pressure vapour refrigerant from flowing back to the evaporator in rotating blade type rotary compressor?

MCQ
186

A cyclic heat engine takes 40 kJ of heat from a $100^\circ$C temperature reservoir. If it gives 40 kJ of work, then which of the following statements is correct?

MCQ
187

Which of the following statements is true about hit and miss governing?

MCQ
188

Calculate the polar moment of inertia and the maximum torque transmitted by a solid shaft of diameter 100 mm and length 1.0 m. Let the angle of twist be $2^\circ$ and the modulus of rigidity, G = 80 GPa.

MCQ
189

The heat transfer during constant pressure heating of a gas in a cylinder containing a sliding piston is equal to _______.

MCQ
190

A closed system undergoes a cycle consisting of two processes. Process 1-2 is an isothermal expansion whereas Process 2-1 is an isentropic compression. According to the first law of thermodynamics, which of the following statements is true for this cycle?

MCQ
191

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about no slip boundary condition?

MCQ
192

In which of the following compressors, the top cover is bolted to the compressor housing instead of the welded steel shell?

MCQ
193

For the H-S diagram of a vapour compression refrigeration cycle, the specific enthalpy of the refrigerant coming out from the compressor ________.

MCQ
194

A drill bit of diameter 25 mm has cutting speed of 15.7 m/min. What is the speed of rotation of drill?

MCQ
195

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the characteristics of Entropy? 1)It increases when heat is supplied irrespective of the fact whether temperature changes or not. 2)It decreases when heat is removed whether temperature changes or not. 3)It remains unchanged in all adiabatic frictionless processes. 4)It increases if temperature of heat is lowered without work being done as in a throttling process.

MCQ
196

In a Hartnell governor, if a spring of greater stiffness is used, then the governor will be:

MCQ
197

The volumetric efficiency of a single-stage reciprocating air compressor is the ratio of the:

MCQ
198

The Kelvin-Planck statement of the Second Law states that ________.

MCQ
199

If hi and h 2 are en thal pies at the inlet and the outlet, respectively and Ci and C 2 are inlet and outlet velocities, respectively, then which of the following statements is

MCQ
200

Which of the following is the effect of frictional resistance to the flow of the steam jet over the blade in steam turbines?

MCQ