SSC Exams · SSC JE Mechanical
SSC JE (Mechanical) Official Paper (Held On: 16 Nov 2022 Shift 2) (English)
SSC JE (Mechanical) Official Paper (Held On: 16 Nov 2022 Shift 2) (English) with official questions, answers, and practice mock test.
Start Mock Test
Score: 0 / 0
In-article ad slot
Section 1
General Intelligence and Reasoning
50 questions
Section Test
1
Select the option that indicates the correct arrangement of the given words in a logical and meaningful order. 1. Carpet 2. Ceiling 3. Bed 4. Floor 5. Fan
MCQ
Correct answer: 4, 1, 3, 5, 2
2
Pointing at a lady, Sheela said, “She is my only brother’s daughter’s father’s mother.” How is that lady related to Sheela?
MCQ
Correct answer: Mother
3
In a certain code language, 'EASY' is written as '64' and 'CAMP' is written as '47'. How will 'ABET' be written in that language?
MCQ
Correct answer: 42
4
Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at line AB as shown. Fty 63 B
MCQ
Correct answer: [Diagram / Option 3]
5
Select the option that will replace the question mark in the given figure to complete the pattern
MCQ
Correct answer: [Diagram / Option 1]
6
Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at AB ' as shown
MCQ
Correct answer: [Diagram / Option 2]
7
Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown. b 37 kda
MCQ
Correct answer: p 3 kq
8
Two statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All ships are boats. Some ships are cargo. Conclusions: I. Some boats are cargo. II. All boats are ships.
MCQ
Correct answer: Only conclusion I follows
9
Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) and complete the given number series? 38, 57, 74, 93, 110, ?
MCQ
Correct answer: 129
10
Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series? 3, 9, 15, 33, 63, ?
MCQ
Correct answer: 129
11
Select the option that is related to the fourth term in the same way as the first term is related to the second term and fifth term is related to sixth term. 52 : 5 :: ? : 6 :: 100 : 7
MCQ
Correct answer: 74
12
Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set. (NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed) (15, 56, 13) (8, 15, 7)
MCQ
Correct answer: (11, 57, 8)
13
How many triangles are there in the given figure?
MCQ
Correct answer: 28
14
Select the word-pair in which the two words are related in the same way as are the two words in the given pair. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word) Colossal : Enormous
MCQ
Correct answer: Deceit : Fraud
15
Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order. (From Small to Big) 1.River 2.Ocean 3.Pond 4.Sea 5.Lake
MCQ
Correct answer: 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
16
Which of the given letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the following series? FVYA, ITWD, LRUG, ?, RNQM
MCQ
Correct answer: OPSJ
17
Which of the given letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the following series? CHAI, EKBM, GNCQ, ?, KTEY
MCQ
Correct answer: IQDU
18
Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary. 1.Stalker 2.Station 3.Stammer 4.Stabbed 5.Strange 6.Strings 7.Stacked
MCQ
Correct answer: 4, 7, 1, 3, 2, 5, 6
19
Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the given sets. (NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (6, 5, 35) (8, 4, 36)
MCQ
Correct answer: (7, 9, 72)
20
In a code language, ‘GATHER’ is written as '20-26-7-19-22-9' and ‘DISPERSE’ is written as '23- 18-8-11-22-9-8-22'. How will ‘CONSTRAINT’ be written in that language?
MCQ
Correct answer: 24-12-13-8-7-9-26-18-13-7
21
Select the word-pair in which the two words are related in the same way as are the two words in the given pair. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word) Lucid : Rational
MCQ
Correct answer: Numerous : Profuse
22
Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.) Needle : Sew :: Spanner : ?
MCQ
Correct answer: Grip
23
Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the given sets. (NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (17, 136, 7) (12, 120, 9)
MCQ
Correct answer: (14, 126, 8)
24
Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a straight row, facing north. Only five people are sitting in between G and E. F is an immediate neighbour of both G and A. Only four people are sitting to the right of A. Who is sitting on the extreme left?
MCQ
Correct answer: G
25
In a certain code language, 'TAXPAYER' is written as 'UCYRBAFT' and 'TAXATION' is written as 'UCYCUKPP'. How will 'TENDENCY' be written in that language?
MCQ
Correct answer: UGOFFPDA
26
Seven children, P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V are seated around a square dining table, all facing towards the centre. Some of them are sitting at the corners while some are sitting at the exact centre of the sides of the table. One seat is left vacant. U and T are immediate neighbours. Q is seated at a corner, third to the right of T. Only three kids are seated between U and Q. R is an immediate neighbour of both P and Q. P is not an immediate neighbour of T. S is seated second to the left of T. If V is seated fourth to the right of P, where is the vacant seat?
MCQ
Correct answer: Second to the left of R
27
In this question, three statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All scooters are cars. No car is a cycle. All cars are vehicles. Conclusions: I. All cars are scooters. II. Some cycles are vehicles.
MCQ
Correct answer: Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
28
Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.) Odisha : Bhubaneshwar :: Nagaland : ?
MCQ
Correct answer: Kohima
29
Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and the sixth term is related to the fifth term. 145 : 170 :: 290 : ? :: 442 : 485
MCQ
Correct answer: 325
30
Select the correct combination of mathematical signs that can sequentially replace ‘A’ and balance the given equation. 26 A 12 A 12 A 6 A 2 A 5 A 6
MCQ
Correct answer: ̶ , +, ÷, =, ×, +
31
Three different positions of the same dice are shown (Figures 1-3).Find the number on the face opposite to the face having 2 ' Figure 1 Figure 2 Figure 3
MCQ
Correct answer: 6
32
If A denotes ‘+’, B denotes ‘ב, C denotes ‘−’, and D denotes ‘÷’, then what will come in place of ‘?’ in the following equation? 99 D 9 B 6 D 3 A 5 B (2 C 1) A 3 = ?
MCQ
Correct answer: 30
33
In a code language, ‘CANDLE’ is written as ‘3-1-14-4-12-5’ and ‘DARK’ is written as ‘4-1-18-11’. How will ‘LIGHT’ be written in that language?
MCQ
Correct answer: 12-9-7-8-20
34
Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series? FJVT, ?, JPBX, LSEZ, NVHB
MCQ
Correct answer: HMYV
35
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven cousins of different ages. A is younger than only E. G is younger than C but older than D. B is the youngest amongst them. F is younger than D. How many people is D younger than?
MCQ
Correct answer: [Diagram / Option 4]
36
Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark(?) in the given series? 27, ?, 40, 45, 49, 52
MCQ
Correct answer: 34
37
Select the correct combination of mathematical signs that can sequentially replace ‘@’ and balance the given equation. 52 @ 12 @ 15 @ 3 @ 6 @ 5 @ 15
MCQ
Correct answer: −, +, ÷, =, ×, +
38
Jia starts from Point A and drives 6.3 km towards the north. She then takes a right turn, drives 2.65 km, turns right and drives 10.25 km. She then takes a right turn and drives 8.72 km. She takes a final right turn, drives 3.95 km and stops at Point P. How far and towards which direction should she now drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90 degree turns only)
MCQ
Correct answer: 6.07 km, east
39
Hari's brother is Shiv. Shiv has two sons Ram and Shyam. Shyam’s daughter is Priya. How is Shiv related to Priya?
MCQ
Correct answer: Father’s father
40
Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark and complete the pattern
MCQ
Correct answer: [Diagram / Option 1]
41
Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary. 1.Pentium 2.Pentagon 3.Penalise 4.Permeate 5.Personified 6.Penetrate 7.Pesticide
MCQ
Correct answer: 3, 6, 2, 1, 4, 5, 7
42
Select the option that represents the letters that, when sequentially placed from left to right in the blanks below, will complete the letter series. C _ H E _ C K C C _ E C C _ _ C H _C _ K
MCQ
Correct answer: C C H K C E C
43
Select the option that is related to the fifth term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and the fourth term is related to the third term. SEVERE : EREVES :: CRIMINAL : LANIMIRC :: LOCATION : ?
MCQ
Correct answer: NOITACOL
44
Q lies to the east of P. R lies to the north of P. S lies to the north-east of Q. T lies to the south- east of P and south-west of Q. What is the position of T with respect to S?
MCQ
Correct answer: South-west
45
Select the option that will replace the question mark (?)in the given figure to complete the pattern
MCQ
Correct answer: [Diagram / Option 4]
46
Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order. 1.Knead 2.Bread 3.Bake 4.Flour 5.Grain
MCQ
Correct answer: 5, 4, 1, 3, 2
47
Select the option in which the given figure is embedded. (Rotation is NOT allowed)
MCQ
Correct answer: [Diagram / Option 1]
48
Select the option that is embedded in the given figure (rotation is NOT allowed).
MCQ
Correct answer: [Diagram / Option 2]
49
[Image / Diagram based question]
MCQ
Correct answer: 149
50
Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series? KIES, OLHW, ?, WRNE, AUQI
MCQ
Correct answer: SOKA
Section 2
General Awareness
46 questions
Section Test
51
If one would like to climb the Himalayas from the foothills to higher altitudes in India, then which would be the correct sequence of forests that would be visible? 1) Deciduous forests 2) Tundra vegetation 3) Pine forests 4) Wet, temperate type of forests 5) Temperate grasslands and pastures
MCQ
Correct answer: 1-4-3-5-2
52
When was the Bharat Nirman Programme launched by the Government of India?
MCQ
Correct answer: 2005
53
Which German chemist and physicist predicts that the combination of the number of electrons (n) and the physical structure of the ring system determines whether a molecule is aromatic, antiaromatic, or non-aromatic?
MCQ
Correct answer: Erich Huckel
54
Which of the following is the deepest manmade hole on Earth with a depth of 12.2 km, known as the deepest artificial point on Earth?
MCQ
Correct answer: Kola Superdeep Borehole
55
The upper basin of which river in the state of Chhattisgarh is in the shape of a saucer?
MCQ
Correct answer: Mahanadi river
56
Which of the following is used in cough syrups?
MCQ
Correct answer: Ethanol
57
Sharon Lowen a famous proponent of the Odissi style of dance belongs to which country?
MCQ
Correct answer: United States of America
58
Choose the option that contains activity under the service sector.
MCQ
Correct answer: Banking
59
In an effort to usher in reforms in the field of agricultural marketing and promote online marketing of agricultural products across the country and maximise the benefits of farmers, the Government has approved a program called ______.
MCQ
Correct answer: National Agriculture Market (eNAM)
60
Who among the following has written ‘The Bird of Time’?
MCQ
Correct answer: Sarojini Naidu
61
The Ras Leela was first started as a dance form in 1779 by ______, a 18th century Meitei monarch.
MCQ
Correct answer: Bhagyachandra
62
Article ___________ of the Indian Constitution guarantees equal opportunity to all citizens in matters related to employment in the public sector.
MCQ
Correct answer: 16
63
With the enactment of Government of India Act, 1919 the provincial budget was _______________.
MCQ
Correct answer: separated from Central budget
64
According to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) list, the Himalayan brown bear, wild Asiatic buffalo, desert fox and hornbill are classified into which category?
MCQ
Correct answer: Rare species
65
The Governor of a State can reserve any bill passed by the state legislature for the consideration of the _______________.
MCQ
Correct answer: President
66
If an object is moving with an actual speed of x in uniform motion, find the average speed of the object.
MCQ
Correct answer: x
67
Which country did India defeat to win its first ever cricket World Cup title?
MCQ
Correct answer: West Indies
68
Raslila is a famous dance majorly performed in which Indian State?
MCQ
Correct answer: Uttar Pradesh
69
Who among the following was appointed as the Chairman of Indian Space Research Organisation in January 2022?
MCQ
Correct answer: Dr S Somanath
70
How many Articles were there in the original Constitution of India?
MCQ
Correct answer: 395
71
Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution are related to citizenship?
MCQ
Correct answer: Articles 5 to 11
72
Which of the following statements is correct?
MCQ
Correct answer: WBC is an example of a single cell.
73
For which region was the direction of trade (in terms of India’s imports in Rs. Crore) for 2016- 17 the maximum?
MCQ
Correct answer: Asia and ASEAN
74
In November 2021, the Union Ministry of Cooperation launched the "Dairy Sahakar" scheme at Anand, Gujarat at an outlay of ₹________ crores.
MCQ
Correct answer: 5,000
75
Who among the following proposed the Vernacular Press Act of 1878?
MCQ
Correct answer: Lord Lytton
76
Who received the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1936 for the discovery of a positively charged particle called the ‘positron’?
MCQ
Correct answer: Carl Anderson
77
Who is the first Indian to claim World No. 1 ranking in the U-19 Girls Singles category in the Badminton World Federation junior rankings?
MCQ
Correct answer: Tasnim Mir
78
The market value of final goods and services produced by a country during the period of an accounting year, inclusive of depreciation, is known as the:
MCQ
Correct answer: GDP at market price
79
_____won his 11th National Billiards title on 20 December 2021 in Bhopal.
MCQ
Correct answer: Pankaj Advani
80
Mathematically, the direct relationship of which law can be represented by the given equation? Where V, T and k are volume, temperature and constant, respectively. V/T=k
MCQ
Correct answer: Charles' law
81
Noble gases belong to which of the following groups?
MCQ
Correct answer: 18th group
82
Who among the following was a noted Mridangam player who served as ‘Artist in Residence in Music’ at Wesleyan University from 1970-1975 and again from 1988-2000 teaching South Indian drumming?
MCQ
Correct answer: Ramnad V Raghavan
83
Who introduced the concepts of food web, food chain and ecological niche in the classic textbook 'Animal Ecology' published in 1927?
MCQ
Correct answer: Charles Elton
84
Which of the following is/are formed by subduction between a plate carrying continental crust and a plate carrying oceanic crust?
MCQ
Correct answer: Ocean trench
85
Which of the following forests are found in the higher latitudes of Northern hemisphere and are also called as Taiga?
MCQ
Correct answer: Coniferous Forests
86
Which waves fall in the range of the EM spectrum between radio and IR used in modern technology such as wireless networks, spacecraft communication, medical diathermy, and cancer treatment?
MCQ
Correct answer: Microwaves
87
Match the following table. RIVER TRIBUTARIES A Kaveri 1 Pen ganga B. Krishna 2. Kab in i C. God a war i 3.Koyna
MCQ
Correct answer: A - 2, B - 3, C - 1
88
The headquarters of ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation) is located at:
MCQ
Correct answer: Bengaluru
89
Which triangular plateau region of India lies south of the river Narmada?
MCQ
Correct answer: Deccan plateau
90
Main ______ river forms boundary between the two States of Telangana and Maharashtra.
MCQ
Correct answer: Pranahita
91
Which of the following statements is true with respect to energy?
MCQ
Correct answer: It is the stored ability to do work.
92
Which of the following statements is correct regarding central dogma?
MCQ
Correct answer: m-RNA synthesis is called transcription.
93
Who among the following was the founder of the Kanva dynasty?
MCQ
Correct answer: Vasudeva
94
In the 2021 Winter Session of the Parliament, how many bills were passed in both the Houses of parliament in total from the 13 bills that were tabled?
MCQ
Correct answer: 11
95
Pullela Gopichand won the All England Open Tournament in the year ________.
MCQ
Correct answer: 2001
96
Select the correct option citing reasons for male migration and their percentages, based on the Census of India 2011.
MCQ
Correct answer: Education -2%, marriage -4%, work employment-24%
Section 3
General Engineering Mechanical
104 questions
Section Test
97
In which year was the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act enacted in India?
MCQ
Correct answer: 2005
98
As announced in May 2021, PM CARES for children scheme would support children who have lost both Parents or legal Guardian or Adoptive Parents or Surviving Parent to COVID-19 pandemic during the period starting from ________.
MCQ
Correct answer: 11 March 2020
99
Which of the following is a qualitative method of credit control?
MCQ
Correct answer: Margin requirement
100
The town of Mawsynram in Meghalaya is famous as:
MCQ
Correct answer: the wettest place in India
101
The mathematical expression for centre of pressure when the surface is inclined and immersed in the liquid is given by:
MCQ
Correct answer: h= IG sin" +x Ax
102
If water is flowing through a circular pipe of diameter d (in m) and has a velocity of V (in m/s), the quantity of water (in litres per sec) is given by ________.
MCQ
Correct answer: × d 2 × V × 1000 litres second
103
The function of a steam trap is _____________.
MCQ
Correct answer: to automatically drain away the condensed steam from the steam pipes, steam jackets without permitting it to escape
104
If the density of the fluid does NOT vary during the flow, then the fluid is said to be:
MCQ
Correct answer: incompressible
105
Knocking takes place in compression ignition engine
MCQ
Correct answer: at the start of the combustion
106
In an air standard Diesel cycle the efficiency depends on:
MCQ
Correct answer: cut off ratio, compression ratio and ratio of specific heats
107
A flywheel is used to control ________.
MCQ
Correct answer: variation in speed during each cycle of an engine
108
Equivalent evaporation is defined as the amount of water evaporated from _____.
MCQ
Correct answer: 100ᵒC to dry and saturated steam at 100ᵒC
109
The first law of thermodynamics is based on ________.
MCQ
Correct answer: the principle of conservation of energy
110
According to __________ the rate of increase in pressure along the depth is equal to __________.
MCQ
Correct answer: Hydrostatic law, weight density
111
[Image / Diagram based question]
MCQ
Correct answer: ratio of ultimate stress to the working stress
112
Which of the following expressions give the Thoma’s cavitation factor (σ), which is basically used to determine whether cavitation will occur in any portion of the turbine? Where, Ha = atmospheric pressure head, Hv = vapour pressure head, Hs = suction pressure head, H = working head of turbine.
MCQ
Correct answer: (Ha- I H-H) /H
113
During phase change process of water _________.
MCQ
Correct answer: both pressure and temperature remain constant
114
The Hydraulic Gradient Line will be having zero in case of _________ .
MCQ
Correct answer: uniform pressure
115
For a system operating in a cycle, the net work transfer is equal to ______.
MCQ
Correct answer: net heat transfer
116
In a Hydroelectric power plant, the electric power is obtained from the _______.
MCQ
Correct answer: energy of water
117
Pressure at any point in a liquid depends upon ____________.
MCQ
Correct answer: height of the free surface above the measured point
118
Which of the following is NOT a type of radiator core arrangement?
MCQ
Correct answer: Syphon
119
For spring loaded safety valve the pressure required to lift the valve is _____ the pressure required to open it fully.
MCQ
Correct answer: less than
120
At tempering isa of steam temperature where process happens.
MCQ
Correct answer: reduction
121
If cut-off ratio in air standard dual cycle approaches to unity, then this lead to which among the following cycles?
MCQ
Correct answer: Otto cycle
122
The equations of equilibrium for non-concurrent force system are:
MCQ
Correct answer: [Diagram / Option 4]
123
In P-H diagram of vapour compression refrigeration cycle, the compression process is shown by a:
MCQ
Correct answer: straight line with positive slope
124
Which of the following is NOT an assumption taken in the Bernoulli theorem?
MCQ
Correct answer: The flow is rotational.
125
In Electrode Discharge Machining (EDM) process, the gap between the tool and workpiece should be:
MCQ
Correct answer: 0.025 mm to 0.05 mm
126
The discharge velocity in the orifice meter is measured by using which of the following?
MCQ
Correct answer: Pitot tube
127
Water is flowing through a circular pipe under pressure. If the total energy per unit weight of the water at a cross-section is 30 m and the piezometric head at that section is 29.4 m, then what will be the kinetic head at that section?
MCQ
Correct answer: 0.6 m
128
In a reciprocating compressor, the swept volume is $\frac{8}{9}$ times the maximum volume. The clearance ratio will be equal to ________.
MCQ
Correct answer: 0.125
129
The range of flow ratio value f for a Francis turbine is:
MCQ
Correct answer: 0.15 to 0.25
130
A boiler produces steam at a rate of $\frac{10}{9}$ kg per second at 20 bar and 40 o°c. The efficiency of the boiler is 80%, and the feed-water temperature is 5 o°C. The calorific value of the fuel used is 44500 kJ kg Enthalpy of steam 1 at 2 o bar and
MCQ
Correct answer: 341.15
131
[Image / Diagram based question]
MCQ
Correct answer: stable
132
[Image / Diagram based question]
MCQ
Correct answer: 40%
133
For a velocity compounded impulse turbine, which of the following statements is correct?
MCQ
Correct answer: Pressure drops only in nozzle
134
The frictional torque transmitted in a conical pivot bearing with assumption of uniform wear is ___________ as compared to uniform pressure theory.
MCQ
Correct answer: less
135
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of water tube boiler in comparison with fire tube boiler?
MCQ
Correct answer: Less immune to failure in feed water supply
136
High pressure low water safety valve CANNOT be used on____________.
MCQ
Correct answer: locomotive boiler
137
An engine cylinder has clearance volume of 20 cc and compression ratio of 14. The mechanical and volumetric efficiencies are 88% and 80%, respectively. The actual volume of charge in cc inducted per stroke is:
MCQ
Correct answer: 208
138
For a laminar flow through a circular pipe of diameter 400 mm, the maximum velocity is 2 m/s. What will be the velocity at 8 cm from the wall of the pipe?
MCQ
Correct answer: 28 m/s
139
If the thermal efficiency of a Carnot engine is 0.5, then the coefficient of performance of the Carnot refrigerator will be:
MCQ
Correct answer: [Diagram / Option 4]
140
Water is flowing through a circular pipe of diameter 20 cm at the rate of 2 meter cube per second. What will be the velocity of water in the pipe?
MCQ
Correct answer: 63.7 m/s
141
Double helical gears are also known as:
MCQ
Correct answer: herringbone gears
142
In a heat pump, the processes of the cycle are carried out in such a manner that the sequence of processes on the p-V diagram _________.
MCQ
Correct answer: is in anticlockwise direction
143
In a mist lubricating system, mist of lubricating oil forms when:
MCQ
Correct answer: only fuel vaporises
144
Which velocity is kept as a common reference in both inlet and outlet velocity triangle for drawing the velocity diagram of a steam turbine?
MCQ
Correct answer: Blade velocity
145
In a simple vapour compression refrigeration cycle, the enthalpy at point l, 2 and 4 are 260 kJ/kg,60 kJ kg and 180 kJ kg respectively as shown in the figure If 2 kg of refrigerant is used to cool the system, then COP of the refrigerator will be: Thigh low
MCQ
Correct answer: 5
146
In which boiler is forced circulation of water required?
MCQ
Correct answer: Benson
147
Point X is 10 m below the free surface of a liquid and point Y is 12 m below the free surface of the same liquid. The correct relationship for the pressure at points X and Y is _________ .
MCQ
Correct answer: Pressure at point X < Pressure at point Y
148
The CGS unit of mass density is __________.
MCQ
Correct answer: gram per cubic centimetre
149
The product of specific volume and density is:
MCQ
Correct answer: 0
150
Which type of condenser is used for small installations of refrigeration systems (up to 30 kW)?
MCQ
Correct answer: Double tube type
151
A fully insulated and completely empty tank is being filled with some fluid with negligible fluid velocity. Which of the following is correct?
MCQ
Correct answer: Specific enthalpy of entering fluid is equal to final specific internal energy of fluid in the charged tank.
152
The heat acquired or released during a phase change is called _________.
MCQ
Correct answer: latent heat
153
Which of the following characteristics decides that the Lancashire boiler is a fire tube boiler?
MCQ
Correct answer: Use of two flue tubes through which flow of hot gases and water is kept around the tubes
154
External work of evaporation is defined as ___________.
MCQ
Correct answer: heat expended in overcoming the external resistance to change in volume
155
[Image / Diagram based question]
MCQ
Correct answer: 100 kNm
156
Supersaturated expansion of steam through the nozzle results in:
MCQ
Correct answer: increase in entropy and increase in dryness fraction
157
Cross-flow turbines are devices for converting the kinetic energy of the wind or water currents to ____.
MCQ
Correct answer: rotational mechanical energy
158
The dimensional formula of Volumetric Discharge is given by:
MCQ
Correct answer: L3 T-1
159
Which of the following high pressure boilers has a unique characteristic of absence of steam separating drum?
MCQ
Correct answer: Benson boiler
160
Convergent part, divergent part and throat are the used to construct which of the following devices?
MCQ
Correct answer: Venturi meter
161
Which of the following is NOT property of the thermodynamic system?
MCQ
Correct answer: Heat
162
When a fluid comes into contact with a surface, the force exerted by the fluid on the surface is referred to as ____________.
MCQ
Correct answer: total pressure
163
The purpose of using fins in inter cooler is to reduce:
MCQ
Correct answer: temperature
164
In a refrigeration system, the work input is 20 kJ/kg while 80 kJ/kg of heat is rejected out of the system. The COP of the system will be:
MCQ
Correct answer: [Diagram / Option 2]
165
Choose the correct answer from the following four options? S1: Open cycle Gas turbine is a rotary internal combustion engine. S2: Steam engine is a reciprocation external combustion engine.
MCQ
Correct answer: Both S1 and S2 are correct
166
The property of the material by which the material recovers its original shape after the removal of load is known as:
MCQ
Correct answer: elasticity
167
The change in vertical height (in mm) of a Watt governor when it changes its speed from 50 rpm to 51 rpm is approximately equal to:
MCQ
Correct answer: 14
168
[Image / Diagram based question]
MCQ
Correct answer: latent heat of water
169
The machining time for drilling process is calculated by: (Where L = Length of axial travel in mm; N = rpm of the drill; f = feed per rev in mm)
MCQ
Correct answer: T= (N ×f)
170
Which of the following statements is true about entropy is?
MCQ
Correct answer: Entropy of the universe always increases for all practical processes.
171
Fluids undergo volumetric change under the action of external forces due to ________.
MCQ
Correct answer: compressibility
172
Choose the correct answer from the following four options. S1: High load on engine requires high viscosity lubricating oil. S2: High speed engine requires low viscosity oil.
MCQ
Correct answer: S1 and S2 both are correct
173
Two pressure lines in the superheated region on the T-S diagram of a Rankine cycle are:
MCQ
Correct answer: Parallel to each other
174
Compared to Air cooling system of an engine the compressed Water cooled engine has
MCQ
Correct answer: Lower fuel consumption
175
Which of the following statements is true about sensible heat?
MCQ
Correct answer: It is the amount of energy needed to increase or decrease the temperature of refrigerant.
176
If the overall efficiency and mechanical efficiency of a centrifugal pump are 56% and 70%, respectively, then what will be its manometric efficiency?
MCQ
Correct answer: 80%
177
Variation in a specific volume of water if it is heated at 273 K:
MCQ
Correct answer: first decreases then increases
178
Specific heat at constant volume is _______.
MCQ
Correct answer: the ratio of the change in specific internal energy to the corresponding change in temperature
179
When the compressor and motor operate on the same shaft and are enclosed in a common casing, then it is known as __________.
MCQ
Correct answer: hermetically sealed compressor
180
Which among the following zone or part of piston is subjected to highest temperature due to combustion?
MCQ
Correct answer: The center of the crown
181
The average operating pressure of a Benson boiler is_____________.
MCQ
Correct answer: 250 bar
182
[Image / Diagram based question]
MCQ
Correct answer: 44 m/s
183
Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
MCQ
Correct answer: The force of friction is not depending upon the roughness of the surfaces.
184
Coefficient of performance is also called ________.
MCQ
Correct answer: energy ratio
185
A cylinder contains 0.2 m3 of a gas at a pressure of 1 bar and temperature $27^\circ$C. If this gas is compressed to 0.02 m3 at a pressure of 20 bar, the temperature at the end of compression will be:
MCQ
Correct answer: $327^\circ$C
186
[Image / Diagram based question]
MCQ
Correct answer: volumetric efficiency
187
The hydraulic efficiency of a hydraulic turbine is related to the overall efficiency of a turbine as ____.
MCQ
Correct answer: No /
188
Dryness fraction is defined as ___________.
MCQ
Correct answer: ratio of mass of dry steam to total mass of wet steam
189
The pressure below atmospheric value is called __________.
MCQ
Correct answer: vacuum pressure
190
Oil of specific gravity 0.9 is flowing at the rate of 100 litres per second in a 0.30 m diameter pipe. If the pressure head at point P is 3 m of oil and this point P is 4 m above the datum line, then what will be the total energy at point P in metres of oil? Take g = 10 m/s2.
MCQ
Correct answer: 7.1 m of oil
191
The number of helical springs used in a spring loaded safety valve is_______.
MCQ
Correct answer: one
192
In order to increase the efficiency of Rankine cycle, Which one of the following statement is incorrect?
MCQ
Correct answer: By increasing condenser pressure
193
In a horizontal pipe with a 100 mm diameter, the pressure head loss over a length of 5 metres is found to be 0.85 m. If the coefficient of friction is 0.1, the flow velocity in the pipe will be __________.
MCQ
Correct answer: 0.91 m/sec
194
For HS diagram of vapor compression refrigeration cycle, which of the following statements is FALSE?
MCQ
Correct answer: The throttling process is shown by a curved line with a positive slope.
195
For a given impeller diameter, Power of the pump is proportional to: Where, N = rotational speed in rpm
MCQ
Correct answer: N3
196
The pressure of charge inducted through the inlet port inside the cylinder in the case of a two-stroke engine is _______.
MCQ
Correct answer: equal to atmospheric pressure
197
Which of the following specification is generally measured in cubic centimeter for an internal combustion engine
MCQ
Correct answer: Swept volume of cylinder
198
The Bell-Coleman cycle is an example of _________.
MCQ
Correct answer: air refrigeration cycle
199
In which type of manometer, a reservoir having a large cross-sectional area (about 100 times) as compared to the area of the tube is connected to one of the limbs of the manometer?
MCQ
Correct answer: Single column manometer
200
The efficiency of any reversible engine operating between source reservoir and sink reservoir depends on _______.
MCQ
Correct answer: the temperatures of both reservoirs