SSC Exams · SSC JE Mechanical

SSC JE (Mechanical) 2023 Official Paper-I (Held On: 11 Oct, 2023 Shift 2) (English)

SSC JE (Mechanical) 2023 Official Paper-I (Held On: 11 Oct, 2023 Shift 2) (English) with official questions, answers, and practice mock test.
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Section 1

General Intelligence and Reasoning

49 questions Section Test
1

‘NEST’ is related to ‘PHUW’ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, ‘PWSR’ is related to ‘RZUU’. Which of the following is related to ‘MORG’ using the same logic?

MCQ
2

Two statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the state ments. Statements: All clothes are jeans. All jeans are shirts. Conclusions: I. All clothes are shirts. II. At least some shirts are jeans.

MCQ
3

Point G is 9 m to the west of Point H. Point B is 10 m to the north of Point H. Point A is 18 m to the west of Point B. Point C is 28 m to the north of Point A. Point C is 23 m to the west of Point D. Point E is 18 m to the south of Point D. Point F is 5 m to the west of Point E. What is the distance between Point H and Point F?

MCQ
4

Which of the following numbers will replace the question marks (?) in the given series? 523, 513, ?, 496, ?, 483, 478, 474

MCQ
5

‘5 FSH’ is related to ‘10 HUJ’ in a certain way. In the same way, ‘8 STH’ is related to ‘16 UVJ’. Which of the following is related to ‘12 PEP’ using the same logic?

MCQ
6

Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order. 1. Infant 2. Adolescent 3. Toddler 4. Adult 5. Embryo

MCQ
7

Arrange the following words in a logical and meaningful order. 1. chapter 2. sentence 3. letter 4. phrase 5. word

MCQ
8

Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at ' PQ ' as shown. FYU 2 VD

MCQ
9

If ‘+’ means ‘–’, ‘–’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’, ‘÷’ means ‘+’, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 11 – 42 × 6 ÷ 69 + 27 = ?

MCQ
10

Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes. Sisters, Mothers, Teachers

MCQ
11

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set. (NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (7, 340, 3) (4, 63, 1)

MCQ
12

Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary. 1. Manager 2. Maintain 3. Malice 4. Match 5. Mark

MCQ
13

उस विविकल्प का चयन कीकीजिजिए, जो तीसरेे शब्द सेे उसी प्रकार संंबंंधिधित हैै, जिजिस प्रकार दूसरा शब्द पहलेे शब्द सेे संंबंंधिधित हैै। (शब्दोंदों को अथर्थपूूणर्ण शब्दोंदों केे रूप मेंमें माना जाना चाहिहिए, और शब्द मेंमें अक्षरोंरों कीकी संंख्या / व्‍व्‍यंंजनोंनों / स्वरोंरों कीकी संंख्या केे आधार पर एक दूसरेे सेे संंबंंधिधित नहींहीं होना चाहिहिए।) व्यवस्थिस्थित (Organise) : बेेतरतीब (Jumble) : : विविदेेशी (Overseas) : ?

MCQ
14

Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct? 36 – 5 + 240 ÷ 6 × 17 = 203

MCQ
15

Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series, will complete the series. R_ML_P_P_ _NP R_ML_P_P_LN_

MCQ
16

Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to sequentially replace the signs and balance the given equation. 13 64 2 8 *11 = 18

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17

Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark and complete the given pattern

MCQ
18

Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary. 1. Demography 2. Denial 3. Demonstrate 4. Dense 5. Demolish

MCQ
19

Select the option that represents the letters which, when sequentially placed from left to right in the blanks below, will complete the letter series. _ E N _ _ A E _ D R _ E

MCQ
20

A, B की माता है। B, C का पति है। D, C का ससुर है। A का D से क्या संबंध है?

MCQ
21

Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

MCQ
22

In a certain code language, “CTA” is coded as “1203” and “RXB” is coded as “22418”. How will “MQV” be coded in that language?

MCQ
23

किसी तस्वीर में मौजूद एक व्यक्ति की ओर इंगित करते हुए राहुल ने कहा "वह मेरे पिता की पुत्रीी की पुत्रीी का पिता है।" तस्वीर में मौजूद व्यक्ति का राहुल से क्या संबंध है?

MCQ
24

Select the option that is related to the fifth term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and the fourth term is related to the third term. 18 : 52 :: 8 : 22 :: 12 : ?

MCQ
25

In a certain code language, 'CARRY' is coded as YRUAC and 'HUMAN' is coded as NAPUH. How will 'NIGHT' be coded in that language?

MCQ
26

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and the sixth term is related to the fifth term. 56 : 14 :: 88 : ? :: 32 : 11

MCQ
27

A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?

MCQ
28

Maanvi cycles X km towards the north from her home and then turns right and cycles Y km to reach Point A. She then turns left and cycles for X+Y km to reach her shop. If she cycled for a total of 12 km from her home to her shop, what is the distance between Point A and her shop?

MCQ
29

Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word) Ink : Pen :: Paint : ?

MCQ
30

Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. ICMS, KDOT, ? , OFSV, QGUW

MCQ
31

Select the figure which will replace the question mark (?) in the given figure to complete the pattern.

MCQ
32

Select the option that is related to the fourth term in the same way as the first term is related to the second term and the fifth term is related to the sixth term. 529 : 21 :: ? : 19 :: 841 : 27

MCQ
33

A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?

MCQ
34

Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series? 143, 153, 146, ?, 142, 152

MCQ
35

Six friends are sitting in a circle facing the centre. Sumit sits second to the right of Amit. Karan is an immediate neighbour of Param. Tony sits third to the right of Amit. Dharam is an immediate neighbour of Amit and Sumit. Karan sits second to the right of Sumit. Who sits to the immediate left of Amit?

MCQ
36

8 friends, Abhay, Bala, Chan, Dev, Emran, Fanny, Geeta and Hema are sitting around a square table such that four of them sit at the corners and the other four sit at the exact centre of the sides. Those sitting at the corners are facing outside while those sitting at the centre of the sides are facing the centre. Dev is sitting third to the right of Geeta and is facing the centre. Emran is third to the left of Chan who is not sitting at the centre of the sides. Only one person sits between Emran and Fanny. Fanny is not Chan’s neighbour. Hema is sitting facing the centre. Abhay is not Fanny’s neighbour. Who is sitting third to the right of Chan?

MCQ
37

In a certain code language, ‘CROSS’ is written as ‘66’ and ‘CHART’ is written as ‘90’. How will ‘SYMBOL’ be written in that language?

MCQ
38

Which letter cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series? JIVC, DEXH, XAZM, ?

MCQ
39

In a certain code language, ‘POLISH’ is written as ‘89’ and ‘CLIP’ is written as ‘72’. How will ‘CONTROL’ be written in that language?

MCQ
40

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

MCQ
41

How many squares are there in the given figure?

MCQ
42

Which letter cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series? LDL, NHJ, PLH, RPF, ?

MCQ
43

उस शब्‍द युग्‍म का चयन कीजिए, जिसमें दिए गए दोनों शब्‍द एक दूसरे से उसी तरह से संबंधित हैं, जिस तरह दिए गए युग्‍म के दोनों शब्‍द ए‍क दूसरे से संबंधित हैं। (शब्दों को सार्थक शब्द माना जाना चाहिए, और शब्द में अक्षरों की संख्या/व्यंंजनों/स्वरों की संख्या के आधार पर एक दूसरे से संबंधित नहीं होना चाहिए।) प्रचार (Propagate) : प्रसार (Disseminate)

MCQ
44

Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct? 9 × 182 + 14 ÷ 67 – 33 = 151

MCQ
45

Select the word-pair in which the two words are related in the same way as are the two words in the given pair. Yarn : Fabric

MCQ
46

Which of the following option figures will complete the pattern in the figure given below?

MCQ
47

There are seven family members Q, R, S, T, U, V and W. Each are of different ages. R is elder than only three other members. S is younger than V but elder than W, who is the youngest among all. Q is elder than R but younger than U. U is not the eldest among all. How many family members are there between Q and W?

MCQ
48

Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 4, 80, 159, 244, 338, ?

MCQ
49

Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and complete the pattern.

MCQ
Section 2

General Awareness

49 questions Section Test
50

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed) (5, 4, 33) (7, 3, 55)

MCQ
51

Which of the following is NOT listed in Fundamental Duties?

MCQ
52

Which of the following instruments did Sheik Chinna Moulana, a famous instrumentalist from India, play?

MCQ
53

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about migration in India?

MCQ
54

The 11th fundamental duty is related to ________.

MCQ
55

What is Petrology?

MCQ
56

Who classified Indian society into seven classes?

MCQ
57

Identify the chemical formula for ethyne.

MCQ
58

Most of the crops being cereals, required approximately _________ of dietary water footprint.

MCQ
59

Which of statement is NOT correct regarding the earthquake waves?

MCQ
60

Beta-carotene, lycopene, lutein and selenium are examples of:

MCQ
61

One may be tempted to treat higher level of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of a country as an index of greater well-being of the people of that country. But there are some reasons due to which this may not be correct. Which of the following is NOT one of these reasons?

MCQ
62

Which of the following classical dance styles is inscribed on the Gopuram of Chidambaram temple?

MCQ
63

Chilika Lake is a brackish water lagoon, spread over which districts of Odisha state?

MCQ
64

Who was the leader of Kaira Satyagraha that was launched against the government?

MCQ
65

Which of the following are NOT antimicrobial drugs?

MCQ
66

Darshana Jhaveri and Devjani Chaliha are best known for their contributions to which of the given styles of Indian dance?

MCQ
67

In January 2023, who among the following has been appointed as the new Vice-Chief of the Indian Air Force?

MCQ
68

Martyrdom of revolutionary ___________ took place on 27 February, 1931.

MCQ
69

In March 2023, which of the following organisations launched Mission ‘Har Payment Digital’?

MCQ
70

According to the Census of India 2011, what was the percentage of Sikh communities in the total population in India?

MCQ
71

Which cyber security measure involves verifying the identity of users before granting access to a system or network?

MCQ
72

Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India mentions about the abolition of untouchability?

MCQ
73

As on 1st February 2023, who among the following is the Chairperson of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)?

MCQ
74

As per Finance Bill 2023, eligible start-ups will be able to set off and carry forward losses incurred during their first ten years of incorporation, even if there has been a change in shareholding, if all shareholders continue during the relevant period. The previous time limit of seven years has been increased to _________.

MCQ
75

Which of the following is NOT a commodity money?

MCQ
76

All England Championships is associated with _______.

MCQ
77

The best-known _________ ruler was Prithviraja III who was defeated by an Afghan ruler Sultan Muhammad Ghori in 1192.

MCQ
78

निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी एक सामान्य स्थि ति है जो तब विकसित होती है, जब प्लाक (plaque) नामक एक चिपचिपा पदार्थ आपकी धमनियों के अंदर जमा हो जाता है, जिससे वे कठोर और संकीर्ण हो जाती हैं?

MCQ
79

As per the Budget 2022 announcement, a _______ income tax will be applied on earnings from virtual digital assets like cryptocurrencies.

MCQ
80

Which of the following is an aspartic acid-containing dipeptide sweetener?

MCQ
81

The total number of persons awarded under Jeevan Raksha Padak Series of Awards- 2022, which was announced by the President of India on 25th January 2023, stood at ________.

MCQ
82

Which of the following pairs of coast and the state in which it is located is INCORRECT?

MCQ
83

Which of the following metals is present in nature in its free state?

MCQ
84

Which team won the 2022 Durand Cup?

MCQ
85

How much of global trade is carried out through the sea route?

MCQ
86

When did 5G services begin to be offered in India?

MCQ
87

Which of the following protocols is used by email clients to send email to mail servers?

MCQ
88

Name the Government scheme aimed to benefit women entrepreneurs from backward backgrounds or poor backgrounds.

MCQ
89

According to the Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy (CMIE), in which state of India was the unemployment rate recorded as 34.5%, as of April 2022?

MCQ
90

Which element was proposed by Glenn T Seaborg in 1955 through the bombardment of a minute amount of a rare, radioactive isotope of Einsteinium with α-particles in a 60-inch cyclotron?

MCQ
91

The Udyogmandal Canal is a part of which National Waterways?

MCQ
92

Chhajju Khan is one of the founder of which Gharana?

MCQ
93

What is the respective percentage of CO2, N2, and O2 in the atmosphere?

MCQ
94

The Constitution (87th Amendment) Act, 2003 provided for the delimitation of the constituencies on the basis of the census of __________.

MCQ
95

If one goes from Rajasthan in the west to Orissa in the east, what is the correct order of Peninsulas one will come across? 1) Marwar Plateau 2) Malwa Plateau 3) Chhota Nagpur Plateau 4) Chhattisgarh Plateau

MCQ
96

Article ________ of the Constitution of India states that the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor.

MCQ
97

What is the name of the organic compound in the given figure?

MCQ
98

When was the Indian Association founded?

MCQ
Section 3

General Engineering Mechanical

102 questions Section Test
99

Which of the following is/are responsible for nasal congestion?

MCQ
100

Which of the following classical dancers won the Padma Shri award in 2022 for the dance form of Kuchipudi?

MCQ
101

The following Temperature – Entropy diagram represents a Refrigeration system operates on the reversed Carnot cycle. The higher temperature of the refrigerant in the system is $35^\circ$C and the lower temperature is -$15^\circ$C. What will be the C.O.P?

MCQ
102

In the shaping process, the cutting tool moves _________.

MCQ
103

An air standard diesel cycle working with a compression ratio of 13 and cut off takes places at 5 % of the stroke volume. The value of cut off ratio will be

MCQ
104

According to the American Society of Mechanical Engineers (ASME), the evaporation of 15.63 kg of water at $100^\circ$C per hour from $100^\circ$C feedwater in a steam boiler is known as __________.

MCQ
105

An oil of specific gravity 0.8 is flowing through a pipe. A differential manometer is connected at the two points, say A and B, and shows a difference in the mercury level as 20 cm. What will be the difference between the pressures at the two points? Take density of mercury = 13600 kg/m3 and g = 10 m/s2 .

MCQ
106

Flow process is used for which of the following systems?

MCQ
107

A piezometer is connected to a point in a pipe to measure the pressure of water flowing through it. If the piezometer reads 0.4 m, what will be the gauge pressure at that point? Take atmospheric pressure = 101325 pascals and g = 10 m/s2 .

MCQ
108

Following figure shows which of the following parts of a steam generator? Steam Outlet Steam Inlet

MCQ
109

The Energy Gradient line will______.

MCQ
110

A Carnot cycle operates between two temperatures T1 and T2. The e fficiency of the cycle is given by η = (T1 − T2) / T1. Which of the following statements is correct?

MCQ
111

The dimensional formula of specific gravity is given by:

MCQ
112

The Molten metal is used in ___________ process

MCQ
113

When any gas is heated at constant pressure, its change in volume varies directly with change in absolute temperature. This law is known as ________.

MCQ
114

A heat engine operates between a source at 600 K and a sink at 300 K. What is the maximum possible efficiency of the engine according to the Kelvin-Planck statement of the second law of thermodynamics?

MCQ
115

Which of the following statements is correct about a working engine?

MCQ
116

The enthalpy of water is considered as ‘zero’ at _______.

MCQ
117

The frictional resistance in a turbulent flow is independent of the __________.

MCQ
118

The function of condenser in refrigeration cooling system is _________.

MCQ
119

Which of the following machining operations is NOT related to turning?

MCQ
120

There are two horizontal pipes in which water is flowing. If we have to find the pressure difference between these two horizontal pipes using an inverted manometer, and two manometric fluids with specific gravities of 13.5 and 0.9 are available, then which manometric fluid will be appropriate?

MCQ
121

In a steam boiler, an economiser is used for heating of ________.

MCQ
122

What is the hydraulic radius for a circular pipe running full?

MCQ
123

In the thermodynamic system, the primary driving force for mass transfer is __________.

MCQ
124

Generation of steam in a boiler is an example of an _________.

MCQ
125

A seamless pipe having a diameter of 600 mm and thickness of 9 mm, contain the fluid under a pressure of 4 MPa, find the longitudinal stress developed in the pipe.

MCQ
126

The mass of water evaporated per unit mass of fuel burnt is termed as _________ steam boilers.

MCQ
127

The flow through a capillary tube is an example of ____________ flow.

MCQ
128

The energy loss caused by abrupt enlargement is expressed by:

MCQ
129

In air-conditioning of aeroplanes, using air as a refrigerant, the cycle used is:

MCQ
130

For internal laminar flow, the variation of shear stress in the radial direction is:

MCQ
131

Which of the following is a water-tube boiler?

MCQ
132

Choose the correct mathematical relation of absolute pressure.

MCQ
133

Select the correct statement of Lami’s theorem.

MCQ
134

What will be the absolute pressure (approximately) at a point 3 m below the free surface of a liquid having a density of 1530 kg/m3, if the atmospheric pressure is equivalent to 750 mm of mercury? (The specific gravity of mercury is 13.6 and density of water is 1000 kg/m3, g = 9.81 m/sec2)

MCQ
135

What will be the mass density of one litre of a fluid which weighs 9.81 N? (Take g = 9.81 m/sec2)

MCQ
136

Match the following Halo carbon Refrigerants Examples 1. Halons a.R-32 2. CFC s b. R-22 3.HFC s c. R-11 4. HCFC s d. R-10

MCQ
137

Under steady state operation of a cone clutch, if semi-cone angle (α) decreases then _____________ .

MCQ
138

In a steam boiler, the actual evaporation is 8 kg of steam per kg of fuel burnt. The heat supplied per kg of water is 2500 kJ/kg. Higher calorific value of fuel is 25,000 kJ/kg. What is the boiler efficiency?

MCQ
139

The pressure at the inlet of a refrigerant compressor is called _________.

MCQ
140

The air pre-heater increases the temperature of ___________ before it/they enter(s) the furnace.

MCQ
141

What is the function of the transfer port inside the engine?

MCQ
142

Which of the following is the correct statement relating to the centre of pressure on an immersed surface?

MCQ
143

The pressure responsive element in the Bourdon tube pressure gauge is made of _________.

MCQ
144

The term ρV2/2 used in Bernoulli theorem is basically:

MCQ
145

Choose the correct option related to lathe turning operation.

MCQ
146

The cyclic integral of Q/T for a reversible cycle is equal to zero. This statement is known as _________.

MCQ
147

Which of the following is NOT a type of wet sump lubrication system?

MCQ
148

The highest temperature during the cycle, in a vapour compression refrigeration system, occurs after:

MCQ
149

Which impellers are more likely to be clogged if stringy material or solids are pumped?

MCQ
150

The correct relation between the modulus of elasticity (E) and modulus of rigidity (G) is: Given, µ = Poisson’s ratio.

MCQ
151

The ratio of the energy received by the steam to the energy supplied by the fuel to produce steam in a steam boiler is known as __________.

MCQ
152

In an I.C. engine, when the primary circuit in the coil ignition system breaks, the voltage produced across the secondary terminal is in the range of _______.

MCQ
153

Pressure head of a fluid represents:

MCQ
154

Which of the following does NOT describe the Diesel cycle?

MCQ
155

An engine is working with temperature limits of $29^\circ$C and $229^\circ$C. It receives 1000 kW and rejects 429 kW of heat. Possible cycle executed by the engine is

MCQ
156

Which turbine is suitable where a large discharge at low head is available?

MCQ
157

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

MCQ
158

A body of weight 1 oo N is lying on a rough horizontal surface, and the horizontal force of 5 oN is applied on the body as shown in the figure, which is just enough to move the body What will be the coefficient of friction? 100 N 50 N

MCQ
159

Which of the following is NOT a component of the water-cooling system with radiator?

MCQ
160

Due to the refinement of grains, mechanical properties such as toughness, ductility, elongation and reduction in the area are improved in ___________ process

MCQ
161

A rectifier is fitted in an ammonia absorption plant to:

MCQ
162

A cyclic heat engine of thermal efficiency 80% does 60 kJ of work per cycle. The heat rejected per cycle will be equal to __________.

MCQ
163

The property of tool material to retain its hardness at elevated temperature is known as:

MCQ
164

The expansion process in a vapour compression refrigeration cycle is a/an ___________.

MCQ
165

Which of the following air-cooled condensers are used only in small capacity applications such as domestic refrigerators and room air conditioners?

MCQ
166

The position of centre of pressure depends on which of the following?

MCQ
167

Find the enthalpy of 1 kg of dry and saturated steam at 10 bar if sensible heat at 10 bar is 762.8 kJ/kg and latent heat of evaporation at 10 bar is 2015.3 kJ/kg.

MCQ
168

In a mechanical draught system, draught is produced by a _____________.

MCQ
169

Which of the following milling operations is used to produce a flat surface parallel to the axis of rotation of the cutter?

MCQ
170

The speed ratio of a compound gear train is defined as _______.

MCQ
171

Which of the following statements is true about a four-stroke engine in comparison to a two-stroke engine?

MCQ
172

The behaviour of a material at different stages of loading is represented by a diagram called the _________ diagram.

MCQ
173

If Q1 is the heat rejected to the source and Q2 is the heat extracted from the sink, the coefficient of performance (COP) of a heat pump is given by _______.

MCQ
174

If a turbine is working under different heads, the behaviour of the turbine can be easily determined from the values of _______________.

MCQ
175

The net effect of superheating after compression in vapour compression refrigeration cycle is to have:

MCQ
176

The value of atmospheric pressure in bar is _______________.

MCQ
177

Francis turbine is as example of:

MCQ
178

For the same compression ratio, which of the following processes will require the least compression work?

MCQ
179

Which of the following statements is correct for compressibility?

MCQ
180

If the mechanical efficiency and hydraulic efficiency of a turbine are 60% and 70%, respectively, then what will be the overall efficiency of the turbine?

MCQ
181

In a lubrication method, the oil is kept in the crank case sump and it is splashed by using the end of a connecting rod to various components of the engine. This method is called _____.

MCQ
182

Which thermodynamic property of steam does NOT change in throttling calorimeter?

MCQ
183

For hydraulic turbines, the ratio of overall efficiency and mechanical efficiency is called _________ .

MCQ
184

Natural draft cooling towers are also known as ______.

MCQ
185

Which of following losses fall into the category of major losses?

MCQ
186

If the specific weight of a fluid is 19620 N/m3, then what will be its specific volume in m3/kg? (Take g = 9.81 m/sec2)

MCQ
187

The friction experienced by the body when the body tends to move is known as:

MCQ
188

A centrifugal pump is running at the speed of 1000 rpm against a head of 40 m. If its speed is changed to 3000 rpm, then it will work against a head of:

MCQ
189

The mass flow is same at inlet and outlet in case of ___________.

MCQ
190

In an ammonia vapour compression system, the pressure in the evaporator is 2 bar. Ammonia at exit is 0.85 dry and at entry its dryness fraction is 0.19. During compression, the work done per kg of ammonia is 150 kJ. The latent heat and specific volume at 2 bar are 1325 kJ/kg and 0.58 m3 /kg, respectively. What will be its C.O.P?

MCQ
191

The speed ratio for an impulse turbine can be taken as __________.

MCQ
192

Which of the following statements is true for a throttling process?

MCQ
193

The value of enthalpy of vaporisation approaches to zero on the saturation curve of water on a temperature entropy diagram:

MCQ
194

_______ is a metalworking process which is an example of forging.

MCQ
195

Which of the following is the correct relation for specific speed of turbine?

MCQ
196

Vapour pressure is primarily associated with which phenomenon?

MCQ
197

For a two-stage reciprocating air compressor, the section pressure is 1.6 bar and the delivery pressure is 40 bar. What is the value of the ideal intercooler pressure (in bar)?

MCQ
198

The point at which all the three phases – solid, liquid, and vapour co-exist in equilibrium in a p-T diagram is known as ________.

MCQ
199

The duplex feed pump is:

MCQ
200

Which of the following statements is true regarding vapour-compression refrigeration system (VCRS)?

MCQ