SSC Exams · SSC JE Mechanical

SSC JE (Mechanical) 2023 Official Paper-I (Held On: 09 Oct, 2023 Shift 2) (English)

SSC JE (Mechanical) 2023 Official Paper-I (Held On: 09 Oct, 2023 Shift 2) (English) with official questions, answers, and practice mock test.
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Section 1

General Intelligence and Reasoning

48 questions Section Test
1

Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series, will complete the series. L_M_NL_N_M_L_N_MN_L_M_NL

MCQ
2

Arrange the following words in a logical and meaningful order. 1. germinate 2. sapling 3. seed 4. seedling 5. tree

MCQ
3

Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series? 30, 35, 29, ?, 28, 37

MCQ
4

In a certain code language, “SPYH” is coded as “1714236” and “CFOG” is coded as “14135”. How will “QTNP” be coded in that language?

MCQ
5

Ritu starts from point A and drives 9 km towards South. From here, she takes a left turn and drives 8 km. She then takes a left turn, drives 3 km, turns left and drives 12 km. Finally, she takes a right turn, drives 6 km and stops at point B. How far and in which direction is point B from point A?

MCQ
6

Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 13, 29, 34, 71, 76, 155, 160, ?

MCQ
7

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and the sixth term is related to the fifth term. 23 : 536 :: 21 : ? :: 18 : 331

MCQ
8

Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to sequentially replace the signs and balance the given equation. 17 7 12 6 * 2 = 119

MCQ
9

Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order. 1. Bicycle 2. Car 3. Train 4. Auto-rickshaw 5. Bus

MCQ
10

Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series? AYIN, BWLM, DUOL, ?, KQUJ

MCQ
11

Each of the seven friends, Kirti, Siya, Amita, Preeti, Deepika, Jeet and Pari, has scored different marks in an exam. Pari has scored more than Kirti but less than Siya. Deepika has scored less than Preeti but more than Amita. Kirti has scored more than Preeti but less than Pari. Siya is not the highest scorer. Who has scored the least marks?

MCQ
12

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and the sixth term is related to the fifth term. 27 : 95 :: 11 : ? :: 9 : 23

MCQ
13

Select the option figure which is embedded in the given figure as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

MCQ
14

Two statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All novels are textbooks. No newspaper is a textbook. Conclusions: I. No novel is a newspaper. II. At least some textbooks are novels.

MCQ
15

Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark and complete the pattern

MCQ
16

‘DHL’ is related to ‘JLN’ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, ‘MAC’ is related to ‘SEE’. Which of the following is related to ‘FIP’ using the same logic?

MCQ
17

Peter departs from his home and walks 10 m towards north and then turns right and walks 36 m. He turns left and walks 5 m. Now he turns left again and walks 25 m and stops. A pole is placed exactly 15 m south from where he is standing. How far and in which direction is his house from the pole? (Assuming that all turns are 90 degree turns only.)

MCQ
18

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g., 13 Operations on 13 such as adding/subtraction/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed) (8, 4, 6) (13, 9, 10)

MCQ
19

In a certain code language, 'MARKET' is coded as '94', and 'SHOP' is coded as '50'. How will 'ITEMS' be coded in that language?

MCQ
20

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

MCQ
21

Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary. 1 - Ostracise 2 - Ossification 3 - Otherwise 4 - Ostensible 5 - Ostrich

MCQ
22

If '×' means '−', '÷' means '+', '−' means '÷', '+' means '×', then what will be the correct answer of the following relation? 375 - 25 ÷ 3 + 5 - 5 × 2 = ?

MCQ
23

Pointing towards a person in the photograph, Kamla said, “He is the daughter’s brother of my husband’s father Ashok. Ashok has only two children. How is the person in the photograph related to Kamla?

MCQ
24

Select the option that is embedded in the given figure (rotation is NOT allowed)

MCQ
25

Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series? 212, 213, 215, 219, ?, 243, 275

MCQ
26

Six students E,F,G,H,I and J are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. H is an immediate neighbour of both E and G. I is sitting third to the left of G. E is sitting second to the right of F. J is an immediate neighbour of both F and G. Who is immediate neighbour of both G and F?

MCQ
27

Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series? CFWI, ?, FHTK, IIQL, MJMM

MCQ
28

Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and complete the pattern.

MCQ
29

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below. Fb 3 y 6 a

MCQ
30

In a certain code language, ‘FALSE’ is written as ‘97’ and ‘MYTH’ is written as ‘46’. How will ‘LEGEND’ be written in that language?

MCQ
31

If ‘+’ means ‘–’, ‘–’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’, ‘÷’ means ‘+’, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 35 ÷ 84 × 4 – 3 + 11 = ?

MCQ
32

If A denotes ‘÷’, B denotes ‘×’, C denotes ‘−’ and D denotes ‘+’, then what will be the value of the following equation? 90 D 121 A 11 B 10 C 90

MCQ
33

Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

MCQ
34

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g., 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed) (5, 2, 121) (4, 3, 55)

MCQ
35

Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series? XYZV, STUQ, ?, IJKG, DEFB

MCQ
36

In a certain code language, “ABHORRENT” is written as “TNERROHBA” and “CULINARY” is written as “YRANILUC”. How will “DELETTANTE” be written in that language?

MCQ
37

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded rotation is NOT allowed)

MCQ
38

Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word) Jaggery : Sugarcane :: Fabric : ?

MCQ
39

Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a straight row, facing north. Only 1 person sits to the left of D. A is an immediate neighbour of D. Only 2 people sit between F and D. Only 3 people sit between C and G. B is not an immediate neighbour of G. Only 2 people sit between E and A. Who sits to the immediate right of F?

MCQ
40

Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes. Tables, Cupboards, Furniture

MCQ
41

Select the word-pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one expressed in the pair of words given below. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/ vowels in the word.) Denver : Colorado

MCQ
42

How many triangles are there in the given figure?

MCQ
43

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the given set. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (361, 49, 266) (225, 36, 180)

MCQ
44

Select the word-pair in which the two words are related in the same way as are the two words in the given pair. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word) Salt : Sodium

MCQ
45

Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series? ACAW, ELHA, IUOE, ?, UMCM

MCQ
46

Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary. 1. Recession 2. Rebuke 3. Recognize 4. Receive 5. Recover

MCQ
47

If ‘O ^ P’ means ‘O is the brother of P’, ‘O P’ means ‘O is the mother of P’, 'O + P’ means ‘O is the husband of P’, ‘O @ P’ means ‘O is the sister of P’, ‘O = P’ means ‘O is the son of P’, and ‘O % P’ means ‘O is the father of P’, then how is S related to M the following expression? S = G % H @ E + F M

MCQ
48

Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at line MN as shown. 56 fg WRS

MCQ
Section 2

General Awareness

51 questions Section Test
49

Select the word-pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one expressed in the pair of words given below. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/numbers of consonants/vowels in the word) Chaos : Peace

MCQ
50

Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word) Binocular : View :: Spoon : ?

MCQ
51

What are Guyots?

MCQ
52

Patayat Sahu, who was conferred the Padma Shri in the year 2023 by the President of India for his significant contribution in the field of medicinal plants in agriculture, is from ________.

MCQ
53

The Sangeet Natak Akademi gives fellowships to eminent artists. Gopika Varma received it for Mohiniyattam which is a dance form of which state?

MCQ
54

Which of the following energy resources is also known as Liquid Gold?

MCQ
55

What type of compound is formed when one hydrogen atom in ammonia is substituted by an alkyl or aromatic group?

MCQ
56

In June 2022, who became the first Indian to be recognised as the Global Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) Pioneer for water stewardship by the United Nations Global Compact (UNGC)?

MCQ
57

Which of the following is associated with Atoll?

MCQ
58

In October 2021, MUDRA Toolbox was launched by the ________ in five Indian languages.

MCQ
59

Match the column A with column B Column-A (Block Periodic Table) Column B Elements a s block i. La b. p-block ii. Cu c d block ili. Al d. f-block iv. Na

MCQ
60

What does the ‘Print Range’ option allow you to do when printing a document?

MCQ
61

Who among the following attacked Gujarat and plundered the Somnath Temple in the 11th century?

MCQ
62

To which of the following gharanas of music did Ustad Amir Khan, a renowned vocalist, belong?

MCQ
63

According to the Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy (CMIE), in which state of India was the unemployment rate recorded as 0.1%, as of September 2022?

MCQ
64

Which of the following Buddhist sites is NOT found in the Vengi region of Andhra Pradesh?

MCQ
65

In which year was the Television (TV) service started in India?

MCQ
66

Electric field can be defined as:

MCQ
67

When did Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt throw the bombs inside the Central Assembly in Delhi?

MCQ
68

Match the following columns Column-A Column-B i Fat a. Sugar ii Protein b Calcium and sodium ili. Carbohydrate c. Amino acid iv Minerals d Glycerol and fatty acid

MCQ
69

According to the Census of India 2011, what is the sex ratio of Daman and Diu?

MCQ
70

Which of the following adulterants is mixed with sunflower oil and sesame oil to increase their quantity?

MCQ
71

Which of the following Acts is regarded as the precursor to the Indian Constitution?

MCQ
72

Which of the following is the largest phylum of animalia?

MCQ
73

Name the project which was launched for tackling the increasing HIV prevalence in the eight North-Eastern states.

MCQ
74

The boundary line separating one drainage basin from another is called ___________.

MCQ
75

Which of the following measures of money supply is considered most liquid?

MCQ
76

The first Bose-Einstein Condensate (BEC) made of which atom was reported by the team of Eric Cornell and Carl Wieman in 1995?

MCQ
77

Which of the following is a type of shield volcano that is large (up to several 1,000 m high and 200 km across) but NOT steep (usually $2^\circ$ to $10^\circ$) and their magma is almost always mafic?

MCQ
78

Where was India House founded in the UK?

MCQ
79

What is the total outlay for extended period of Comprehensive Handicrafts Cluster Development Scheme, which has been extended till FY 2026?

MCQ
80

Select the correct pair of Indian classical dancers of Odissi style.

MCQ
81

Which of the following is NOT included in fundamental duties?

MCQ
82

President of India, Droupadi Murmu met President of Republic of Suriname, ________on the sidelines of the 17th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas Convention at Indore, Madhya Pradesh on 10 January 2023.

MCQ
83

How are resources divided on the basis of status of development?

MCQ
84

Pandit Shambhu Maharaj is a renowned ________dancer.

MCQ
85

Which of the following is an intermediate goods industry?

MCQ
86

The Manusmrti, one of the best-known legal texts of early India, is written in _______.

MCQ
87

Which of the following items may NOT be treated as an intermediary good?

MCQ
88

Protection of ___________ is the fundamental duty of an Indian citizen.

MCQ
89

Who among the following is NOT part of the Goods and Services Tax Council of India?

MCQ
90

Who was the Governor-General during the Anglo-Nepal war?

MCQ
91

In which city will the 2024 Summer Olympic Games be held?

MCQ
92

____________ Central Administrative Tribunal benches exist all over India, as of December 2022.

MCQ
93

According to the Global Multidimensional Poverty Index 2022, around___________people in India climbed out of poverty between 2005-06 and 2019- 21.

MCQ
94

Which of the following is an example of a homeothermic animal?

MCQ
95

In which of the following games is the term 'header' associated?

MCQ
96

Which of the following factors are responsible for spoilage of stored food?

MCQ
97

Which of the following factors is a geographical factor that affects the distribution of the population in India?

MCQ
98

What is the primary objective of cybersecurity?

MCQ
99

What is the correct sequence of the zones of a pond ecosystem from the bottom to top?

MCQ
Section 3

General Engineering Mechanical

101 questions Section Test
100

According to the Ministry of Textile, Government of India (2022-23), which fibre crop is majorly produced in Gujarat, Maharashtra and Telangana?

MCQ
101

The value of the gross stage efficiency and Blade efficiency of the single stage of the impulse turbine are 65% and 78% respectively then the value of the nozzle e fficiency will be

MCQ
102

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the Benson boiler?

MCQ
103

The process of pushing the heated billet or slug of metal through an die orifice, thus forming an elongated part of a uniform cross-section corresponding to the shape of the die orifice is known as ____________

MCQ
104

Which of the following statements is correct about water-tube and fire-tube boilers?

MCQ
105

The figure shows theP-V diagram of the Constant pressure -heat addition, qA compression Is en tropic Is en tropic expansion We Constant pressure Heat rejection

MCQ
106

What is the value of the density of water at $4^\circ$C?

MCQ
107

A closed vessel contains 5 kg of air, and 50 kJ of heat is given to it. If 75 kJ of work is done by the system, then which of the following is true? (Take Cp = 1.005 kJ/kg-K, Cv = 0.718 kJ/kg-K)

MCQ
108

Which of the following turbine has 50% degree of reaction?

MCQ
109

If difference of axial components of velocity at inlet and outlet of a de-Laval turbine is found to be 120 m/s and mass flow rate of steam is 7 kg/s then axial thrust on the rotor is

MCQ
110

The amount of water striking the runner of the reaction turbine is controlled by _____.

MCQ
111

What is the unit of measurement of actual evaporation in steam boilers?

MCQ
112

A closed system undergoes a process in which the work done by the system is 100 J and the internal energy decreases by 50 J. According to the first law of thermodynamics, what is the amount of heat transferred into or out of the system?

MCQ
113

Which of the following is the correct expression for pressure intensity?

MCQ
114

In the context of work done of turbine, the power developed by the runner depends on which of the following parameters?

MCQ
115

What will be the atmospheric pressure at a location where the barometric reading is 750 mm Hg and the gravitational acceleration is g = 9.81 m/s2? Assume the density of mercury to be 13,600 kg/m3.

MCQ
116

The evaporation of feedwater at $100^\circ$C into dry and saturated steam at $100^\circ$C at atmospheric pressure is known as ____________.

MCQ
117

Which of the following is the correct item for Double Volute in centrifugal pumps?

MCQ
118

The bent tube of a Bourdon tube pressure gauge will change its shape when exposed to variations of _______.

MCQ
119

In aqua-ammonia absorption refrigeration system, incomplete rectification leads to accumulation of water in:

MCQ
120

The difference in low temperature cascade condenser temperature and high temperature cascade evaporator temperature is called ___________.

MCQ
121

If the cutter and workpiece movements are in opposite directions, the milling process is known as -

MCQ
122

In actual air-conditioning applications for R-12 and R-22 refrigerant and operating at a condenser temperature of $40^\circ$C and an evaporator temperature of $5^\circ$C, the heat rejection factor is about:

MCQ
123

The pressure intensity at a point in a fluid is given as 3.924 N/cm2. What will be the corresponding height of fluid when the fluid is water?

MCQ
124

If the line of stroke of a follower passes through the centre of rotation of a cam, then the cam is called _________.

MCQ
125

Scavenging phenomenon occurred in Two-stroke IC engine when

MCQ
126

Which of the following statements is correct regarding governor?

MCQ
127

On the stress-strain diagram, the material obeys Hooke’s law till:

MCQ
128

Which of the following statements is true about hot working process?

MCQ
129

The point of intersection of the line of action of the resultant hydrostatic force and the submerged surface is called _____.

MCQ
130

The continuity equation ois valid for a xe ay

MCQ
131

According to _________, the intensity of pressure in a liquid at rest is constant in all directions.

MCQ
132

Which of the following statements is correct about the forced-draught fan used in steam boilers?

MCQ
133

A solid circular shaft of diameter d is subjected to the twisting moment T. Which of the following relations can be used to determine the stress developed in the shaft?

MCQ
134

In which of the following cycles does heat addition NOT take place at constant volume?

MCQ
135

An impulse turbine is running at 1000 rpm with a net head 600 m. If the discharge through the nozzle is 0.1 m3/s, then what will be the power available at the nozzle? Take g = 10 m/s2.

MCQ
136

Which of the following is NOT the part of venturimeter setup?

MCQ
137

Ammonia is NOT used in domestic refrigeration and comfort air-conditioning because:

MCQ
138

If the temperature of 'A' is equal to the temperature of 'B' and 'C', then the temperature of 'B' will be equal to the temperature of 'C'. This is known as:

MCQ
139

The SI unit of specific heat is:

MCQ
140

In case of dual cycle of an IC engine, heat addition is __________.

MCQ
141

Which of the following evaporators are also known as prime-surface evaporators?

MCQ
142

In which percentage generally is lubricating oil mixed with the fuel, which is then inducted into the carburettor in a mist lubricating system?

MCQ
143

Which of the following point angles of a twist drill is used for general purpose work?

MCQ
144

The function of an air pre-heater is _____________.

MCQ
145

What will be the specific weight of one litre of petrol of specific gravity 0.7? (Take g = 9.81 m/sec2)

MCQ
146

Which of the following statements related to rope drives is INCORRECT?

MCQ
147

Which fluid is used to increase the rate of evaporation of the liquid ammonia passing through the evaporator in domestic Electrolux refrigeration system?

MCQ
148

Which of the following equations is used to calculate major losses in pipes?

MCQ
149

Which of the following about work transfer is NOT correct?

MCQ
150

0.2 m3 of an ideal gas at the pressure of 2 MPa and 600 K is expanded isothermally to 5 times the initial volume. It is then cooled to 300 K at constant volume and then, compressed back polytropically to its initial state. The pressure just after the constant volume process is _______.

MCQ
151

Match the types of refrigerants with their representations Type of Refrigerant Representation 1.CFC refrigerants a. R-22 2 HFC refrigerants b. R-11 3 HC refrigerants c.R-134 a 4 H CFC refrigerants d. R-290

MCQ
152

In the Bell-Coleman refrigeration cycle, the temperature of the refrigerant is maximum at the:

MCQ
153

The reversible adiabatic process in Mollier chart is represented by _________.

MCQ
154

Which of the following equations is NOT used in deriving the expression for discharge through the steam nozzle?

MCQ
155

A workpiece is taper turned using lathe, where large diameter of workpiece is D and small diameter d. If the length of this workpiece is L, then half angle α is given by:

MCQ
156

In a Carnot cycle, _______.

MCQ
157

What pressure head of kerosene of specific gravity 0.8 will be equivalent to a pressure head of 100 m of water?

MCQ
158

Which of the following is a suitable unit for measuring the capacity of refrigeration?

MCQ
159

Latent heat of vaporisation is NOT the _______.

MCQ
160

Which of the following statements about equilibrium is correct?

MCQ
161

In the given T-S diagram of Otto cycle which of the following processes is a heat addition process Temperature Entropy

MCQ
162

The correct expression for the dimensional formula of volumetric discharge in the fluid equations is given by _____________.

MCQ
163

The unit of density in FPS (Foot Pound System) is given by:

MCQ
164

In the boiler mountings, the blow-off cock is fitted at ______.

MCQ
165

A thermometer works on the principle of ____________.

MCQ
166

The velocity of flow between two adjacent streamlines is inversely proportional to the:

MCQ
167

Functionality of nozzle is that,________

MCQ
168

Which of the following is NOT a type of steam separator?

MCQ
169

If the C.O.P. of 1 TR ammonia-water absorption refrigeration plant is 0.5, then the heat supplied in the generator is ___________. (1 TR = 3.51 kw)

MCQ
170

Which of the following is NOT an example of brittle material?

MCQ
171

A Kaplan turbine has an outside diameter of runner and hub diameter as 4 m and 2 m, respectively. If the velocity of flow at inlet is 8 m/s, then what will be the discharge passing through the turbine?

MCQ
172

Which one of the following is correct statement about Blade cross sectional fluid flow area from inlet to outlet of a turbine?

MCQ
173

For the same temperature limit, which of the following cycles has maximum efficiency?

MCQ
174

Which of the following types of simple manometers measures the gauge pressure of only incompressible fluids?

MCQ
175

Which among the following options has same thermal efficiency under ideal conditions (Operate within the same temperature)?

MCQ
176

Which of the following ideal gas processes has the highest polytropic index?

MCQ
177

Which of the following is the advantage of axial flow pump?

MCQ
178

In two-stroke petrol engine, the air Fuel mixture is prepared

MCQ
179

What will be the ratio of the pressure intensities of two fluids, one with a liquid column of 0.4 m of water and the other with a liquid column of 0.2 m of an oil of specific gravity 0.8?

MCQ
180

A cantilever beam carries a uniformly distributed load over a span of 1 m as shown in the figure below. The reactive moment at point A is _________.

MCQ
181

For a laminar flow through a circular pipe, the wall shear stress across a section is a function of _______________.

MCQ
182

If head imparted by impeller to water is equal to manometric head, then the manometric efficiency of the centrifugal pump will be:

MCQ
183

If the pressure intensity at a point in a fluid is given as 2.7 N/cm2, then what will be the pressure head of oil of specific gravity 0.9 at that point? Take g = 10 m/s2.

MCQ
184

If 5 litres of a certain oil weighs 30 N, then what will be the specific weight of that oil?

MCQ
185

A circular opening, 3 m diameter, in a vertical side of a tank is closed by a disc of 3 m diameter which can rotate about a horizontal diameter and depth of centre of gravity from free surface is 4 m. What will be the total pressure on the disc?

MCQ
186

Water is flowing steadily at a velocity of 20 m/s through a pipe of diameter 0.2 m The pressure and elevation at point X are 40 ok N m and 32 m, respectively, while those at another point Y are 3 oo kN m and 34 m, respectively What will be the head loss between the points X and Y? Take g 10 m/s 2

MCQ
187

In Bell-Coleman Cycle, the pressure at the end of isentropic compression is same as:

MCQ
188

Which of the following is NOT a merit of dead weight safety valve?

MCQ
189

If the manometric efficiency and mechanical efficiency of a centrifugal pump are 70% and 80%, respectively, then the overall efficiency will be:

MCQ
190

The dimensional formula for specific gravity is given by:

MCQ
191

Which of the following is a forced circulation type of boiler?

MCQ
192

Which of the following is an isochoric process?

MCQ
193

Which of the following statements holds true, according to Kelvin Planck’s statement?

MCQ
194

The ratio of the actual mass flow rate to that due to isentropic expansion in the steam nozzle is known as _________.

MCQ
195

What is the main function of the condenser in a Rankine cycle power plant?

MCQ
196

The direction of the friction force is:

MCQ
197

Heat addition during the constant pressure process is equal to ________.

MCQ
198

In the refrigeration system, heat rejection factor is the ratio of ___________.

MCQ
199

Which of the following pressure measurement devices consists of a hollow metal tube bent like a hook whose end is closed and connected to a dial indicator needle?

MCQ
200

If the lower temperature fixed by the refrigeration application is high, the C.O.P. of the Carnot refrigerator will be ________.

MCQ