SSC Exams · SSC JE Electrical

SSC JE (Electrical) Official Paper-I (Held On: 07 Jun, 2024 Shift 3) (English)

SSC JE (Electrical) Official Paper-I (Held On: 07 Jun, 2024 Shift 3) (English) with official questions, answers, and practice mock test.
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Section 1

General Intelligence and Reasoning

48 questions Section Test
1

E, F, G, H, P, Q, and R, are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (not necessarily in the same order) . Only three people sit between P and G when counted from the right of P. Only F sits between R and P when counted from the left of P. Only two people sit between R and E when counted from the left of R. H is NOT an immediate neighbour of G. How many people sit between F and Q when counted from the left of F?

MCQ
2

Select the option in which the numbers share the same relationship as that shared by the given pairs of numbers. 100 : 90 70 : 60 (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole number, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13- Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed.)

MCQ
3

What should come in place of ? in the given series? 6, 30, 174, ?, 6222, 37326

MCQ
4

‘AC 2’ is related to ‘DF 8’ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical and numerical order. In the same way, ‘IK 5’ is related to ‘LN 125’. To which of the following is ‘PR 7’ related following the same logic?

MCQ
5

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All girls are honest. Priya is honest. Conclusion 1: Priya is a girl. Conclusion 2: All honest people are girls.

MCQ
6

In a certain code language, ‘GROW’ is coded as ‘5397’ and ‘WILD’ is coded as ‘6942’. What is the code for ‘W’ in the given code language?

MCQ
7

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All parrots are rats. Some rats are lambs. No lamb is a horse. Conclusions: (I) All rats are horses. (II) Some lambs are parrots.

MCQ
8

Select the triad in which the numbers are related to each other in the same way as are the numbers of the given triads. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (12, 9, 96) (14, 7, 84)

MCQ
9

Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and complete the given pattern.

MCQ
10

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? MOK, LNJ, KMI, JLH, ?

MCQ
11

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

MCQ
12

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 11, 18, 25, 32, 39, ?

MCQ
13

18 is related to 162 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 16 is related to 144. To which of the following is 25 related to following the same logic? (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

MCQ
14

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

MCQ
15

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? LOR, PSV, TWZ, XAD, BEH, ?

MCQ
16

This question consists of a pair of words which have a certain relationship to each other. Select the pair which has the same relationship. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.) Brazil : Real

MCQ
17

How many triangles are there in the given figure?

MCQ
18

Sandeep starts walking towards the north from a point and walks 30 m. He turns to the right and walks 30 m. He turns to the left and walks 20 m. He turns to the left and walks 30 m. Finally, he turns to the left and walks 30 m. How far is he now from the starting point? (All turns are 90 degrees turns only unless specified.)

MCQ
19

If A means +, B means −, C means × and D means ÷, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 21 D 7 C 4 A 10 B 13 = ?

MCQ
20

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? UTW, SRU, QPS, ONQ, MLO, ?

MCQ
21

14 is related to 54 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 9 is related to 24. To which of the following is 21 related following the same logic? (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting /multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

MCQ
22

What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘ – ‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged? 10 ÷ 8 × 4 – 6 + 2 = ?

MCQ
23

Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the given equation correct? (165 ÷ 3) + (135 ÷ 5) – 45 + 33 = 66 (Note: Interchange should be done of entire number and not individual digits of a given number)

MCQ
24

Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

MCQ
25

Manoj starts from his home and drives 4 km towards the north. He then takes a left turn, drives 5 km, turns right, and drives 9 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 3 km and turns left then drives 5 km to reach his office. In which direction is the office with respect to his home? (All turns are $90^\circ$ turns only, unless specified.)

MCQ
26

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? LSC, NVG, PYK, RBO, ?

MCQ
27

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at OG as shown below.

MCQ
28

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 18, 30, 42, 54, 66, ?

MCQ
29

Select the word-pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one expressed in the pair of words given below. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.) Greece : Athens

MCQ
30

In a certain code language, ‘A + B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’, ‘A − B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’, ‘A × B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’, and ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the husband of B’. How is H related to E if ‘A − B ÷ H + C × D + E’?

MCQ
31

EHDL is related to ILZH in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, TFRA is related to XJNW. To which of the following is JUIP related, following the same logic?

MCQ
32

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed) (9, 100, 90) (11, 120, 110)

MCQ
33

In a certain code language, ‘HOPE’ is coded as ‘7395’ and ‘OURS’ is coded as ‘6582’. What is the code for ‘O’ in the given code language?

MCQ
34

The position(s) of how many letters will remain unchanged if each of the letters in the word HARDEST is arranged in the English alphabetical order?

MCQ
35

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? HKI GLH FMG ENF

MCQ
36

Select the figure that is embedded as a part of the main figure (X). (Rotation is NOT allowed.)

MCQ
37

2 is related to 26 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 4 is related to 52. To which of the following is 7 related following the same logic? (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

MCQ
38

A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are sitting around a circular table, facing away from the centre (not necessarily in the same order). Only 3 people sit between B and D when counted from the left of D. B sits second to the left of E. G sits to the immediate right of C. A is not an immediate neighbour of D. Who is sitting to the immediate right of E?

MCQ
39

DCHE is related to HFPJ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, CABF is related to FBDL. To which of the following is FIHE related, following the same logic?

MCQ
40

PTOS is related to NRMQ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, JNIM is related to HLGK. To which of the following is MQLP related, following the same logic?

MCQ
41

What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘×’ are interchanged and ‘–’ and ‘÷’,interchanged ? 4 + 11 × 48 – 6 ÷ 3 = ?

MCQ
42

In a certain code language, ‘CASE’ is coded as ‘8426’ and ‘SLIP’ is coded as ‘9275’. What is the code for ‘S’ in the given language?

MCQ
43

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? FIK, GJL, HKM, ILN, ?

MCQ
44

In a certain code language, ‘A + B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’, ‘A − B’ means ‘A is the father of B’, ‘A × B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’, and ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’. How is Q related to Y if ‘Q + K − T × D ÷ Y’?

MCQ
45

The position(s) of how many letters will remain unchanged if each of the letters in the word ABSOLUTE is arranged in the reverse of the English alphabetical order?

MCQ
46

DGFB is related to EFGA in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, EGHC is related to FFIB. To which of the following is FDHB related, following the same logic?

MCQ
47

In a certain code language, ‘LVCO’ is coded as ’12-22-3-15’ and ‘GIPN’ is coded as ‘7-9-16- 14’. What is the code for ‘ZAPG’ in the given language?

MCQ
48

Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order. 1. Cockroach 2. Owl 3. Ant 4. Horse 5. Fox

MCQ
Section 2

General Awareness

51 questions Section Test
49

Six babies Ria, Sia, Tia, Urja, Vani and Winnie are born one after the other but not necessarily in the same order. All of them were born in different cities. Only two babies were born before the one who was born in Raipur. Only one baby was born between Sia, who was born in Delhi and the baby born in Raipur. Tia was born before Urja and just after the baby born in Haridwar. Tia was not born in Raipur. Ria was born in Bhopal and just before Vani. Tia is born immediately before the baby born in Ballia. Winnie was not born in Pune. Who was born just after Sia and in which city?

MCQ
50

Arrange the following words in which they appear in an English dictionary and select the correct option. 1. Helical 2. Helium 3. Heighten 4. Hellenic 5. Heiress

MCQ
51

Who among the following eminent musicians is a famous tabla player?

MCQ
52

Who among the following became the first woman Chief Executive and Chairperson of the Railway Board on 1 September 2023?

MCQ
53

Which of the following is a popular email client software?

MCQ
54

Which of the following is the domestic first-class cricket championship in India?

MCQ
55

According to Article 243 I of the Constitution, the Governor of a state constitutes the Finance Commission for every __________.

MCQ
56

What is the value of 1 electron volt (eV), which is especially used for nuclear science?

MCQ
57

What is the unit of electric current?

MCQ
58

Which Article of the Constitution of India prohibits discrimination on the grounds of religion, race and caste?

MCQ
59

Which of the following are NOT contents of soil?

MCQ
60

Who introduced the Digital Personal Data Protection Bill in the Lok Sabha on 3 August 2023?

MCQ
61

Which sulphur containing preservative is used to increase the shelf life of meat products such as fresh sausages and burgers?

MCQ
62

Which of the following does NOT affect the changes in the states of matter? A) Changing the kinetic energy in the particles of the matter B) Changing the temperature of the matter C) Changing the pressure on the matter D) Changing the colour of the matter

MCQ
63

In how many different combinations do the standard ASCII codes come?

MCQ
64

Which of the following is a simple monocarboxylic acid containing two carbons?

MCQ
65

________, a woman educated at home at Poona, published a book, Stripurushtulna, criticising the social differences between men and women.

MCQ
66

Who said, “Literacy in itself is not Education”?

MCQ
67

The process of measuring various physical and chemical properties of the rocks and fluids within a wellbore is known as:

MCQ
68

According to Census of India 2011, which state/union territory has the second highest sex ratio?

MCQ
69

According to Census of India 2011, which is the second most populated state?

MCQ
70

What is the difference between a somatic cell and a reproductive cell?

MCQ
71

Which Article of the Constitution of India mentions about enlargement of the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?

MCQ
72

In which of the following countries was the revolutionary Ghadar Party formed?

MCQ
73

Which is the correct formula to calculate the formula unit mass of a compound?

MCQ
74

Which agency supported the Bihar State Rural Livelihoods Mission (Jeevika) in developing digital financial services?

MCQ
75

How does the 'Shram Suvidha Portal' of the Ministry of Labour and Employment contribute to transparency in labour law enforcement?

MCQ
76

In which of the following Olympic Games did Dipa Karmakar participate?

MCQ
77

The Battle of Chandawar was fought between Muhammad Ghori and ________, a ruler of the Gahadavala dynasty, in 1194.

MCQ
78

The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976) added three new words to the Preamble i.e. socialist, secular and______________________.

MCQ
79

When was the ‘Mahatma Gandhi Series’ of Indian Bank notes started?

MCQ
80

Where is the headquarters of the National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC)?

MCQ
81

The ________ Health Card Scheme was launched by the Government of India in the year 2014-15.

MCQ
82

Rank the following states in descending order of their percentage share of the population in the country's population, as per Census 2011. Bihar, West Bengal, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh

MCQ
83

The Y-shaped proteinaceous structure produced by the immune cells to defend our body against harmful bacteria and viruses are known as:

MCQ
84

Eukaryotic organisms can have very complex functions to sustain themselves. At the cellular level, these involve several different types of chemical functions like energy production, metabolism etc. What are the membrane-bound structures called, which are present within the cell to keep each of these functionalities separate?

MCQ
85

Why is it safer for our hands to use a wooden spoon while cooking in a hot pan instead of using a metallic spoon?

MCQ
86

When did the government launch Start-up India Seed Fund Scheme?

MCQ
87

Which term refers to the increasing concentration of toxins within each successive link in the food chain?

MCQ
88

Who was sworn in as the Governor of Andhra Pradesh on 24 February 2023?

MCQ
89

Which ministry introduced the Press and Registration of Periodicals (PRP) Bill in Rajya Sabha on 1 August 2023?

MCQ
90

​Which of the following is NOT an animal of Phylum Chordate?

MCQ
91

Who is the governor of Reserve Bank of India as of May 2023?

MCQ
92

Who among the following related to Patiala gharana?

MCQ
93

The central government, in 2021, set up an eight-member panel for framing a new law for drugs, cosmetics and medical devices. Who headed that panel?

MCQ
94

It is hot outside. It is cloudy and raining most of the time. It is the month of June. Which season is it?

MCQ
95

Which organelle contains enzymes that help break down fatty acids and detoxify certain compounds in the cell?

MCQ
96

Identify the incorrect pair (River and its origin) from the following.

MCQ
97

Certain grass-eating animals complete the digestion of food in two processes. First, they swallow partially digested food and then they regurgitate and chew upon that food again. What are such animals known as?

MCQ
98

Which directive principle was added by the 97th Amendment Act 2011?

MCQ
99

Which organelle is responsible for producing ATP, the cell's energy currency?

MCQ
Section 3

General Engineering Electrical

101 questions Section Test
100

Which of the following is the structural and functional unit of an organism?

MCQ
101

Consider the following statements regarding Brushless DC motors and select the correct option. (i) In Brushless motors, there is a provision of permanent magnets that will rotate around a moving armature. (ii) The brush-commutator assembly of a conventional DC motor is replaced by an electronic controller in the Brushless DC motors. (iii) For same kW rating, the Brushless DC motor is less expensive than the Brushed conventional DC motor.

MCQ
102

What is the meaning of the term ‘load factor’?

MCQ
103

How many types of dependent sources are there?

MCQ
104

In a brake test, the DC motor took 20 A from a 200 V supply mains. The brake pulley of radius 10 cm had an effective load of 20 kg and the speed was 10 rps. The value of BHP (in metric) is ______.

MCQ
105

Which of the following materials is widely used for high-temperature heating (1500 °C) applications such as in industrial furnaces and kilns?

MCQ
106

A 4 pole, 50 Hz IM operates at 7% slip. The frequency of EMF induced in the rotor will be ________.

MCQ
107

When is the error under testing of energy meter directly obtained?

MCQ
108

Which of the following is true for the performance analysis of medium transmission line using end condenser method?

MCQ
109

Which of the following statements is correct?

MCQ
110

Which of the following factors will NOT affect the selection of a resistor?

MCQ
111

In electromagnetism of parallel magnetic circuits, the reluctance offered for two parallel paths will be _________.

MCQ
112

If the distance between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is increased 10 times and the area is reduced to one-fourth, then its capacitance _________.

MCQ
113

Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the principle of operation of a switched reluctance motor? 1) The motor relies on the interaction of magnetic fields to produce rotational motion. 2) The motor uses brushes and a commutator to produce rotational motion. 3) The motor uses permanent magnets to produce rotational motion. 4) The motor uses a series of switches to control the flow of current through its coils.

MCQ
114

The scattering of molten metal droplets outside the weld zone, which can lead to surface irregularities is called weld________.

MCQ
115

Which of the following is correct with reference to phasing out test on transformers?

MCQ
116

Transmission efficiency of a transmission line increases with the _________.

MCQ
117

A sinusoidal alternating voltage of time period 36 ms has the maximum value of 250 V. Its value will reach −125 V (half the value of negative maximum) after _____ milliseconds.

MCQ
118

A 400 V, 30 kVA, single-phase alternator has an effective armature resistance of 0.3 Ω. An excitation current of 20 A produces 266 A armature current on short-circuit and an EMF of 400 V on open-circuit. The synchronous impedance and synchronous reactance of the alternator are, respectively, ___________.

MCQ
119

Ten resistors having the same value of resistance i.e. 10 ohm, are connected in parallel. What will be the equivalent resistance of this connection?

MCQ
120

A Lissajous patterns on a Cathode Ray Oscilloscope (CRO) has 8 vertical maximum values and 4 horizontal maximum values. The frequency of the horizontal input is 1600 Hz. Determine the frequency of the vertical input?

MCQ
121

The line voltage of a delta connected three phase circuit is 415 V. The phase voltage is:

MCQ
122

Which of the following statements are INCORRECT about auxiliary motor starting in synchronous motors? A) The function of the auxiliary motor is to run the synchronous motor at a speed less than its synchronous speed. B) The rating of the auxiliary motor is much lower than that of the synchronous motor. C) This method is used only for loaded synchronous motors. D) Auxiliary motor starting is not a commonly used starting method in modern days.

MCQ
123

The total inductance of two coupled coils in the series opposing and series aiding connections are 12 mH and 38 mH, respectively. Find the mutual inductance between the coils.

MCQ
124

Which of the following statement is true regarding End Condenser method used for the performance analysis of medium transmission line?

MCQ
125

The method which can be used for the speed control of an induction motor from the stator side is _________.

MCQ
126

Which of the following statements is correct about inert gas metal arc welding?

MCQ
127

Two inductively coupled coils have self-inductance L1=20H and L2=320H. Find the maximum possible mutual inductance between the coils.

MCQ
128

Which of the following statements related to the speed control of DC shunt and series motors is correct?

MCQ
129

The efficiency of a 60 Hz, 6-pole, 1000 rpm 3-phase induction motor is ________.

MCQ
130

Determine the force required to separate two magnetic surfaces with a contact area of 4π cm2 and the magnetic flux density across the surface is 1 wb/m2.

MCQ
131

At higher forward voltages, a junction diode is likely to ________.

MCQ
132

What is the formula for calculating the magnitude of the mechanical force experienced by a current-carrying conductor perpendicular to the magnetic field, where B = magnetic flux density, I = Current and L = Length of the conductor?

MCQ
133

The operating point of a transistor known as _______.

MCQ
134

The torque developed in the squirrel cage induction motor with auto-starter is ____________.

MCQ
135

In the context of electromagnetism, if a conductor is held in the right hand with the thumb pointing in the direction of the current, then the other fingers will point towards the _____.

MCQ
136

How does the load factor impact the cost of a unit (kWh) of electricity?

MCQ
137

What is the function of the pressure spring in a three-phase energy meter?

MCQ
138

Two coupled inductors L1 = 8H and L2 = 32H have coefficient of coupling K = 0.4. The mutual inductance between them is

MCQ
139

A coil having 100 turns is placed in the magnetic field of 1m wb. Find the average EMF induced if the coil is moved in 0.2 seconds from the given field to a field of 0.4m wb.

MCQ
140

In magnetism, the measure of the ease with which magnetic flux can pass through a material is called _____.

MCQ
141

Which of the following is NOT correct with reference to delta-star type distribution transformers application?

MCQ
142

In thermal power plant, the fire tube and water tube boilers are classified based on

MCQ
143

Which of the following factors will NOT affect the selection of an inductor?

MCQ
144

Which of the following represents the value of parameters A and D for a transmission line in end condenser method?

MCQ
145

The AC ripples can be reduced in a rectifier circuit by using capacitive filter by _________ the capacitance value and by ________ the input frequency.

MCQ
146

In heating effect, if ‘I’ is the current flowing through the conductor in ‘t’ seconds having a resistance ‘R’, then the electrical energy supplied is _______.

MCQ
147

A three-phase star-connected synchronous alternator of rating 22 kVA, 20 kV, 50 Hz has synchronous reactance of 8 Ω per phase. The induced voltage per phase is 20 kV and the line terminal voltage is 15 kV. Find the 3-phase maximum power of the machine.

MCQ
148

In case of installations in commercial buildings, evenly distributed lights can be obtained by the use of lenses, which reduces ____________.

MCQ
149

What will be the stored energy by a 100 mH inductor when 1 A current is flowing through it?

MCQ
150

The receiving end voltage of a radial distribution network is 24 kV. What will be the sending end voltage, if the voltage drop is calculated 25% of receiving end voltage?

MCQ
151

To prevent rusting in electric iron, the plates of the bottom surface and edges are made of ________.

MCQ
152

Chargeable expenses are occasionally also termed as _____.

MCQ
153

In internal wiring estimation, if the connected load is 2 kW and the supply voltage is 240 V, then the maximum load current will be ________.

MCQ
154

In the context of electrical signals, if the signal generated has a definite pattern that repeats itself at regular intervals of time, such a signal is called ______.

MCQ
155

A moving iron ammeter with a range of 0 to 1 amps has an internal resistance of 50 mΩ and an inductance of 0.1 MH. To increase the range to 0-10 Ampere for all operational frequencies, a shunt coil is connected. The shunt coils resistance in mΩ and time constant in milliseconds are each given as:

MCQ
156

Which of the following is an example of an electrostatic type instrument?

MCQ
157

Which of the following types of materials shows a movement from a weaker region to a stronger region of a non-uniform magnetic field?

MCQ
158

Which modulation technique is commonly used in power modulators to achieve variable power output?

MCQ
159

An R-L series circuit, where R = 10 Ω and L = 0.056 H, is connected to an AC supply of frequency 50 Hz. The magnitude of impedance of the circuit is:

MCQ
160

A coil of inductance 10 H and resistance 40 ohm is connected in series with a capacitance and supplied by a source of variable frequency. If the maximum current is found at frequency 1000 rad/sec, then Q-factor of the circuit will be _________.

MCQ
161

A Kaplan turbine is used for ________.

MCQ
162

In a parallel resonant circuit, the input impedance of the circuit is ________.

MCQ
163

In CE configuration, the collector supply voltage Vcc = 10 v, and Rc = 8 k 2. Determine the Quiescent point Q for zero signal if the base current is Ig 15μAandβ = 40.

MCQ
164

In a magnetic circuit, when magnetic flux is passing across the air gap, then effective area of the gap increases and magnetic flux density decreases in the gap. This effect is known as ______.

MCQ
165

In regard to estimation and costing of public lighting, which of the following factors is NOT a fundamental criterion for the quality of public lighting?

MCQ
166

Which of the following triggers the failure of successive parts?

MCQ
167

A combination of integral-cycle control and switching-instant control on the applied voltage wave is employed in IM for _________________

MCQ
168

A 4Ω resistor has a specified maximum power dissipation of 784 W. Calculate its maximum current level.

MCQ
169

Which of the following facts is correct for KCL?

MCQ
170

Which of the following statements regarding biochemical-based power plants is/are true? A) Methane is emitted along with carbon dioxide in aerobic digestion. B) Sewage gas represents a mix of carbon dioxide, methane and trace gas. C) Syngas is generated as a result of gasification in such a plant.

MCQ
171

Which of the following statements are true for synchronous motor losses? A)Friction and windage losses increase with the cube of speed. B)The Eddy current loss is reduced by laminating the core. C)Copper losses are independent of load. D)Core losses increase with the square of the load.

MCQ
172

If the value of the common base current gain (α) is 0.98, then the value of the common collector current gain (γ) is ___________.

MCQ
173

Identify the INCORRECT statement regarding a nuclear power plant.

MCQ
174

Which of the following statements is/are NOT true for the damper windings in alternators? I)These are useful in preventing the hunting in alternators. II) Usually, damper windings are provided in smooth cylindrical type rotor alternators. III)Under normal working conditions, i.e., if machine is at synchronous speed, damper winding do not carry any currents. IV) Damper windings are also used to provide starting torque in alternators.

MCQ
175

What is the advantage of using the current grading in relay systems?

MCQ
176

The value of a series resistor required to limit the current through an electric bulb to 40 mA with a forward voltage drop of 4V when connected to 16 V supply is ________.

MCQ
177

The range of signal generating frequencies for a function generator is __________.

MCQ
178

Which of the following statements is are true regarding symmetrical balanced three phase supply: Instantaneous values of power in all of the 3 phases become zero at same instant. Phase displacement between different phases of an n-phase system is ()electrical except for the two-phase system. 360

MCQ
179

In the estimation and costing of public installations, which of the following factors is required, especially in long stretches of the road and even more on complicated intersections?

MCQ
180

A battery source of 20 V when connected to a load of 19 Ω draws a current of 1 A. What is the value of internal resistance of battery?

MCQ
181

In the context of electromagnetism, the magnetic polarity of a coil of several turns can be determined by the ______.

MCQ
182

The equivalent electrical circuit of a solar PV cell has a ________.

MCQ
183

During the tender in estimation and costing, the guarantee of the tenderer to deposit the required security and enter in to the required agreement on intimation of the acceptance of his tender is called ________.

MCQ
184

The collector to the base bias configuration of a common emitter transistor implicitly employs:

MCQ
185

In order to prevent creeping in an energy meter, which of the following measures is adopted?

MCQ
186

In regard to the construction of a synchronous alternator, hydro alternators have __________.

MCQ
187

The back EMF in a DC motor opposes the supply voltage. This is explained by _________________.

MCQ
188

If the speed of a 3-phase, 400 V, 50 Hz synchronous motor is trebled, the efficiency of the machine will _________.

MCQ
189

In regard to installations of street lighting, what is the average illumination level of Class A1 installations used in important shopping centres and at road junctions?

MCQ
190

What will be the total active power consumed by a 3-phase, delta-connected system, which is supplied with a line voltage of 230 V, when the value of the phase current is 15 A and the current lags the voltage by $30^\circ$?

MCQ
191

Medium transmission lines CANNOT be analysed by using which of the following methods?

MCQ
192

Three identical impedance s are connected in delta The load is supplied by a 3- phase supply of 300 V The line current is 30 V 3 A. Calculate the impedance per phase.

MCQ
193

Which of the following statements are correct about the maintenance factor? I) It is the ratio of illumination under normal working condition to the total lumen given out by the lamp. II) It is the ratio of illumination under normal working condition to the illumination when the things are perfectly clean. III) The accumulation of dust, dirt and smoke on the lamp decreases the maintenance factor. IV) It is the ratio of illumination when the things are perfectly clean to the illumination under normal working condition.

MCQ
194

How does the power factor affect the reading of a wattmeter if voltage and current are unaltered?

MCQ
195

The value of inductance needed to store 4kWh of energy in a coil carrying a 2000A current is:

MCQ
196

Which statement is NOT true for fixed drum type biogas power plant?

MCQ
197

In the circuit shown here, the 20 V source has an internal resistance of 1 Ω. While the current source is ideal, the value of current I is _________ .

MCQ
198

What does the area under the Load Duration Curve represent?

MCQ
199

Which of the following testing methods is NOT used to test an AC energy meter?

MCQ
200

Select the correct statement for a medium overhead transmission line.

MCQ