SSC Exams · SSC JE Electrical

SSC JE (Electrical) 2023 Official Paper-I (Held On: 11 Oct, 2023 Shift 3) (English)

SSC JE (Electrical) 2023 Official Paper-I (Held On: 11 Oct, 2023 Shift 3) (English) with official questions, answers, and practice mock test.
Start Mock Test Score: 0 / 0
In-article ad slot
Section 1

General Intelligence and Reasoning

48 questions Section Test
1

Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary. 1. Magnification 2. Magnitude 3. Magnet 4. Maid 5. Magic

MCQ
2

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and the sixth term is related to the fifth term. 42 : 12 :: 77 : ? :: 91 : 19

MCQ
3

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

MCQ
4

Which of the following numbers will replace the question marks (?) in the given series? 112, 113, 117, ?, 142, 167, ?, 252, 316

MCQ
5

Select the option that indicates the correct arrangement of the given words in a logical and meaningful order. 1. Deer 2. Elephant 3. Mouse 4. Jackal 5. Cat

MCQ
6

Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series? 47, 41, 53, ?, 59, 29

MCQ
7

In a certain code language, “XPCF” is written as “WOBE” and “LRVA” is written as “KQUZ”. How will “BMWG” be written in that language?

MCQ
8

In the following statements A, B, C, D and E denotes +, ̶̶ , x , ÷ and = respectively, then which of the statement is correct?

MCQ
9

Three different positions of the same dice are shown Find the number on the face opposite to the face showing 6 ' (i) () ()

MCQ
10

Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word) Timid : Bold :: Aggressive : ?

MCQ
11

Sonia starts walking from her home and goes 7 m east. From there she turns right and walks a certain distance called P m. Then, she turns left and walks 5 m, now she turns left again and walks 8 m. After that she takes another left turn and walks 12 m. If Sonia’s current position is 22 m south of her home, then what is the value of P?

MCQ
12

In a code language, 'BROWN' is coded as CTRUM and 'ENTER' is coded as FPWCQ . How will 'NOISE' be coded in the same language?

MCQ
13

If A denotes ‘+’, B denotes ‘×’, C denotes ‘−’, and D denotes ‘÷’, then what will be the value of the following equation? 22 B 13 C 120 D 30 A 42 = ?

MCQ
14

Six friends are sitting in a circle. All of them are facing the centre. Samir is an immediate neighbour of Kiran. Gagan is an immediate neighbour of Pran and Vyom. Suman sits second to the right of Gagan. Kiran sits second to the right of Vyom. Who sits fourth to the left of Vyom?

MCQ
15

Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series, will complete the series. R_JK_H_QJ_I_R_JK_H_QJ_IH

MCQ
16

Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and complete the pattern.

MCQ
17

Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series, will complete the series. S_T_XW_UT_X_S_TV_WS_ _VX_

MCQ
18

Select the option figure which is embedded in the given figure as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

MCQ
19

Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word) Metal : Ore :: Jewelry : ?

MCQ
20

Each of the seven friends, Kirti, Siya, Amita, Preeti, Deepika, Jeet and Pari, has scored different marks in an exam. Pari has scored more than Kirti but less than Siya. Deepika has scored less than Preeti but more than Amita. Kirti has scored more than Preeti but less than Pari. Siya is not the highest scorer. Who has scored the highest marks?

MCQ
21

Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 1, 6, 13, 26, 51, 96, ?

MCQ
22

The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown below. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of the paper.

MCQ
23

In a certain code language, ‘CRAZE’ is written as ‘87’ and ‘MAIZE’ is written as ‘86’. How will ‘DEPART’ be written in that language?

MCQ
24

If ‘+’ means ‘÷’, ‘ ̶̶ ’ means ‘+’, ‘×’ means ‘ ̶̶ ’, and ‘÷’ means ‘×’, then what will be the value of the following expression? [{( 25 × 16 ) - ( 3 ÷ 2 )} + ( 3 - 2 )] ÷ 5

MCQ
25

In a certain code language, 'SHELF’ is coded as '110', and 'TABLE' is coded as '120'. How will 'DESK' be coded in that language?

MCQ
26

Select the option that is related to the fifth term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and the fourth term is related to the third term. 38 : 555 :: 25 : 360 :: 17 : ?

MCQ
27

In this question, three statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusion(s) logically follows/follow from the statements. Statements: Some pens are sharpeners. Some sharpeners are pencils. All pencils are erasers. Conclusions: I. Some erasers are sharpeners. II. Some pens are erasers.

MCQ
28

Which letter cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series? SNR, QQN, OTJ, MWF, ?

MCQ
29

Two statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: Some doctors are scientists. Some scientists are engineers. Conclusions: I. All engineers are doctors. II. Some doctors are engineers.

MCQ
30

Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word) Drone : Bee : : Colt : ?

MCQ
31

G is the brother of F. F is B’s daughter. D is A’s son and C’s brother. B is the brother of C. How is B related to A?

MCQ
32

Eight people are sitting in two parallel rows with four people each in such a way that there is equal distance between adjacent persons. In row I – E, F, G and H are seated and all of them are facing south. In row II – U, V, W and X are seated and all of them are facing north. G sits exactly opposite U, who sits second from the right end of their row. F sits at the extreme right end of their row and is exactly opposite X. E sits between F and G and is exactly opposite V. Who sits at the extreme left end of the row of people facing South?

MCQ
33

Sarah departs from her house and walks 20 m towards East. She then turns left and walks 35 m. Now she turns left again and walks 27 m and stops. How far is she from a pole that is exactly 35 m north of her house? (Assuming that all turns are 90 degree turns only.)

MCQ
34

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set. (NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 - Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (20, 8, 4) (12, 3, 6)

MCQ
35

Select the word-pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one expressed in the pair of words given below. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.) Chicken : Strut

MCQ
36

Select the option that is related to the fourth term in the same way as the first term is related to the second term and the fifth term is related to the sixth term? 16 : 1 :: ? : 3 :: 54 : 2

MCQ
37

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and the sixth term is related to the fifth term. 784 : 26 :: 961 : ? :: 529 : 21

MCQ
38

Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order. 1 Cocoon 2 Egg 3 Butterfly 4 Caterpillar

MCQ
39

How many triangles are there in the given figure?

MCQ
40

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded rotation is NOT allowed)

MCQ
41

The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown below. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of the paper.

MCQ
42

Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary. 1. Informer 2. Infested 3. Inferior 4. Infinity 5. Infirmary 6. Inflated

MCQ
43

Select the option that represents the letters which, when sequentially placed from left to right in the blanks below, will complete the letter series. Z _ _ O _ _ M Y _ A Z _ Y O A

MCQ
44

Which letter cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series? NGC, PJH, RMM, TPR, ?

MCQ
45

Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word) Seismograph : Earthquake : : Anemometer : ?

MCQ
46

Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark and complete the given pattern

MCQ
47

If ‘Z @ S’ means ‘Z is the father of S’, ‘Z S’ means ‘Z is the brother of S’, 'Z × S’ means ‘Z is the father’s sister of S’, ‘Z # S’ means ‘Z is the sister of S’, ‘Z $ S’ means ‘Z is the daughter of S’, and ‘Z = S’ means ‘Z is the mother of S’, then how is P related to U in the following expression? P × Q $ R @ S T $ U

MCQ
48

If A denotes ‘+’, B denotes ‘ב, C denotes ‘−’, and D denotes ‘÷’, then what will come in place of ‘?’ in the following equation? 81 D 9 B 3 C 27 = ?

MCQ
Section 2

General Awareness

51 questions Section Test
49

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

MCQ
50

उस शब्द-युुग्म का चयन करेंरें, जो नीचेे दिदिए गए शब्द-युुग्म मेंमें व्यक्त किकिए गए संंबंंध केे समान संंबंंध को सर्वोर्वोत्तम ढंंग सेे निनिरूपिपित करता हैै। (शब्दोंदों को साथर्थक शब्द माना जाना चाहिहिए, और शब्द मेंमें अक्षरोंरों कीकी संंख्या/व्यंंजनोंनों/ स्वरोंरों कीकी संंख्या केे आधार पर शब्द एक- दूसरेे सेे संंबंंधिधित नहींहीं होनेे चाहिहिए।) भालूू (Bear) : नर भालूू (Boar)

MCQ
51

According to the Census of India 2011, identify the least literate state.

MCQ
52

A financial institution can be a banking institution only when it __________.

MCQ
53

Which of the following countries is the host of the Asian boxing Championship 2022?

MCQ
54

Burnpur in West Bengal is famous for which of the following industries?

MCQ
55

What is the percentage increase in the total literacy rate in 2011 over 2001?

MCQ
56

Sulochana Chavan is associated with ________ folk music.

MCQ
57

Which of following was established in Madras in 1864?

MCQ
58

The ‘PRASHAD’ scheme of the Government of India is associated with which ministry of the government?

MCQ
59

The Board of Control established to control company affairs had how many members?

MCQ
60

Which of the following is the correct match of the column A with column B Column A Lake Column B Continent i Lake Victoria a North America ii. Lake Superior b Australia iii. Caspian Sea c Africa iv Lake Eyre d. Asia

MCQ
61

Which of the following statements is NOT correct about angiosperms?

MCQ
62

Chhau is a recognised dance form, for which Shashidhar Acharya received the Padma Shri. To which part of the country does this dance form belong?

MCQ
63

Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution mentioned that the Prime Minister is appointed by the President of India?

MCQ
64

Which of the following articles guarantees that no person shall be punished on the basis of laws enacted after a crime has been committed?

MCQ
65

Which of the following food groups is rich source of Vitamin B12?

MCQ
66

Which of the following is Mohr's salt, used in analytical chemistry as a preferred source of ferrous ions?

MCQ
67

Identify the INCORRECT statement about fermentation.

MCQ
68

Which of the following food additives are helpful to combine products containing immiscible food ingredients, such as oil and water, with one another?

MCQ
69

In June 2022, who among the following took an oath as Delhi High Court Chief Justice?

MCQ
70

Which is the least populated state according to the census of 2011?

MCQ
71

Which is a circular basin covering an area of 5.427 million square miles surrounded by North America and Eurasia?

MCQ
72

Domingo Paes was a __________ traveller, who visited the Vijayanagara empire in the 16th century.

MCQ
73

What was the motto of the National Games of India 2022?

MCQ
74

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about vinegar?

MCQ
75

In order to claim the accumulation of income, trusts or charitable institutions must file Form 9A and Form 10 at least ______ prior to the deadline for filing the return of income as per Finance Bill 2023.

MCQ
76

What work was published by John Dalton in 1808 that provided a physical picture of how elements combine to form compounds and an unprecedented reason to believe that atoms exist?

MCQ
77

What architecture is the famous black pagoda temple situated in Konark?

MCQ
78

Which are the two most common minerals found in rocks?

MCQ
79

The salaries and allowances of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly and Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the State Legislative Council are fixed by the _______________.

MCQ
80

In which century was the Kuchipudi style of Yakshagaana conceived by Siddhendra Yogi?

MCQ
81

Which of the following is a hydroxybenzaldehyde that possesses a hydroxy substituent at position 2 extracted from the herb 'meadow sweet'?

MCQ
82

In September 2022, who among the following was elected as President of Hockey India?

MCQ
83

Who used to supervise the work of collection of revenue in the Mauryan Kingdom?

MCQ
84

How can using templates benefit users when creating a PowerPoint presentation?

MCQ
85

Which of the following groups of rivers is placed in the correct sequence from north to south of the Peninsular River?

MCQ
86

The idea of Fundamental Duties has been borrowed from the Constitution of:

MCQ
87

Which option allows you to import recipient addresses from a spreadsheet when creating mailing labels in MS Word?

MCQ
88

In which state of India is the Bhadla Solar Power Park established?

MCQ
89

The question consists of two statements, namely, Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Use them to choose the correct alternative.Read the following statements and select the correct alternative Assertion (A): Expenditure on interest payment is a capital expenditure Reason (R): Interest payments neither creates any assets nor causes a reduction in liabilities of the government.

MCQ
90

Which of the following connects the continental shelf and the ocean basins?

MCQ
91

Who studied ecological succession in the Indiana Dunes of Northwest Indiana in the 1890s?

MCQ
92

In which of the following states of India is the legislative assembly election was held in late 2022?

MCQ
93

Which of the following musical instruments was played by Ustad Bismillah Khan on the eve of India's independence in the year 1947?

MCQ
94

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT with respect to Special Capital Linked Subsidy Scheme for Service Sector?

MCQ
95

Which period best defines the period of the first Green Revolution in India?

MCQ
96

What is the unemployment rate (in percent) in urban area as per the report of Periodic Labor Force Survey (PLFS) 2020-21?

MCQ
97

According to __________________ of the Constitution of India, no person shall be compelled to pay any taxes for the promotion of a particular religion.

MCQ
98

Who among the following Bengal Nawabs transferred his capital from Murshidabad to Monghyr?

MCQ
99

India’s drainage system is divided on the basis of the size of the watershed. Which of the following is NOT a part of the drainage basin of India?

MCQ
Section 3

General Engineering Electrical

101 questions Section Test
100

Acidified KMnO4 can be used:

MCQ
101

Which of the following CANNOT be caused due to excessive voltage drop in an electric distribution system?

MCQ
102

What is the apparent power of a 3-phase, star-connected system with a line voltage of 200 V and a line current of 20 A? The phase difference between the voltage and the current is 36.$87^\circ$.

MCQ
103

The value of voltage V abin the figure shown below is 100 11 A

MCQ
104

Find the ripple frequency of half wave rectifier if the input operating frequency is 50 Hz.

MCQ
105

_________ is the money put down in addition to the tender.

MCQ
106

60 Degree 600 W

MCQ
107

In the split-phase induction motor, the starting torque of the resistance start motor is about ____________ the full load torque.

MCQ
108

What is the purpose of laminating the core of a transformer?

MCQ
109

The permanent magnet synchronous motor has a configuration almost identical to the conventional synchronous machine with the absence of _______________.

MCQ
110

A non-inductive resistor of 50 Ω is connected in series with a coil of inductance 0.25 Henry and of negligible resistance across a 250 V, 50 Hz supply. The net impedance of the circuit is given by 93.07 Ω. Find the value of reactive power.

MCQ
111

Power factor of an IM is low at ________.

MCQ
112

The value of the current I 2 if I is equal to 10 A is R 1 R 3 I,=10 A R, R 3 R 2 R 2 R 4 100 V R 4 100 V

MCQ
113

Three identical coils connected in delta to a 415 V, 3-phase supply take a total power of 50 kW and line currents of 70 A. Determine the total kVA taken by the coils.

MCQ
114

The value of a series resistor is required to limit the current through an LED to 36mA with a forward voltage drop of 3V, when connected to a 12V supply.

MCQ
115

In case of electrical energy, the joule is also expressed as the _____.

MCQ
116

In applications such as drink and food mixers and sewing machines _________ is used.

MCQ
117

Which of the following expressions clearly indicates determination of the diversity factor in a power system?

MCQ
118

Which of the following statements is true regarding the voltage drop due to armature reaction for leading power factors in an alternator?

MCQ
119

In the application of electrical circuits, the nichrome that is used to make the heating element in an electric cooker has ________.

MCQ
120

In electromagnetism, the pattern of the magnetic field in a solenoid is ______.

MCQ
121

Which sort of contract requires contractors to provide individual price quotes for all work to be performed?

MCQ
122

A overhead transmission line is supported by supports at equal levels. If the length of the conductor span is increased by two times, the sag will ____. (Given, weight per unit length and tension in the conductor are constant.)

MCQ
123

Which of the following is NOT the requirement of a DC servomotor?

MCQ
124

In the spilt-phase induction motor, maximum torque is about _____________ the full load torque at about 75% of the synchronous speed.

MCQ
125

A 3-phase star-connected alternator is rated at 1.3 MVA, 11 KV. The armature effective resistance and synchronous reactance are 1.3 Ω and 20 Ω, respectively. Calculate voltage drop due to synchronous reactance.

MCQ
126

The standard voltage between any two phases in three-phase four-wire secondary distribution system have ______.

MCQ
127

The ratio of the area under the load curve to the total area under the rectangle in which it is contained gives the value of ________.

MCQ
128

How does the input impedance of a CRO affect its deflection sensitivity?

MCQ
129

Which of the following statements is/are true regarding all day efficiency of a transformer? (i) All day efficiency is also called as commercial efficiency. (ii) All day efficiency primarily depends on the duration of load and amount of load. (iii) All day efficiency is achieved when the iron losses are less.

MCQ
130

Which of the following motors DO/DOES NOT use three-point starters?

MCQ
131

Which of the following lamps are used in searchlights?

MCQ
132

Which of the following parts is NOT present in a typical brushless DC motor?

MCQ
133

A resistor of resistance R Ω is connected in series with a coil having an inductance of L henry. If XL is the value of inductive reactance, what is the value of net impedance of the circuit?

MCQ
134

If 15A current is flowing through a solenoid of inductance 4H, find the magnetic energy stored in the solenoid.

MCQ
135

Which of the following measurement instruments consumes the least amount of energy?

MCQ
136

FET is like a switched on condition when it operates in ______ mode.

MCQ
137

The depletion layer capacitance is essentially the capacitance of a _________ p-n junction.

MCQ
138

Which option among the following is correctly associated with the ‘Auxiliary motor starting’?

MCQ
139

What kind of metal does continuous bus bar wire typically consist of?

MCQ
140

What is the reason for providing corrugated or radiators on the sides of transformer tanks?

MCQ
141

Which of the following options shows the correct proportion of helium and neon gases in the mixture for helium neon laser?

MCQ
142

What is the magnetising current of a transformer?

MCQ
143

In Bipolar Junction Transistor, for amplification purposes, emitter-base junction is ____ and collector-base junction is _____ biased.

MCQ
144

An AC circuit contains a resistance and inductance connected in series. The active power consumed by the circuit is equal to 4800 W and reactive power is 6400 VAR. Calculate the apparent power.

MCQ
145

In electrical applications, the coil of an infrared lamp is made up of ________.

MCQ
146

Select the INCORRECT statement(s) regarding squirrel-cage induction generators used in wind power plants. A) They can be used in both constant-speed and variable-speed applications. B) They work within a narrow speed range, which is slightly above the synchronous speed. C) Squirrel-cage induction generators are more expensive than wound-rotor induction generators.

MCQ
147

What is core-stepping in core-type transformers?

MCQ
148

In a phasing out test, a voltmeter connected to the winding shows deflection when the supply is given; this indicates that this is _______________.

MCQ
149

What is the maximum electric field when Vbi=3 V, Vr= 4 V, and the width of the semiconductor is 7 cm?

MCQ
150

Select the correct statement(s) with respect to the Francis turbine. A) It is used in medium heads and for moderate discharges. B) It is an axial-in radial-out type of turbine. C) It is an example of a mixed-flow turbine.

MCQ
151

A coil consists of 1000 turns having a cross-sectional area of 0.4 mm2 . The mean length per turn is 40 cm and the resistivity of the wire is 0.02μΩ-m. The resistance of the coil is _______.

MCQ
152

Because of their high efficiency and high speed, synchronous motors are well suited for________.

MCQ
153

In case of electromagnetic induction, two coils are arranged in such a way that a change in one coil causes an EMF to be induced in the other coil. This is called _____.

MCQ
154

The type of armature winding used in large high-voltage alternators is:

MCQ
155

A voltage source having some internal resistance delivers a 2A current when a 5Ω load is connected to it. When the load is 10Ω, then the current becomes 1.6A. Calculate the power transfer efficiency of the source for a 15Ω load.

MCQ
156

In a metal filament bulb, the filament used as a heating coil is tungsten due to its _____.

MCQ
157

What will be the direction of deflecting torque in a moving iron instrument if the direction of current in the coil is reversed at the same magnitude?

MCQ
158

Which of the following lamps is suitable for highway lighting?

MCQ
159

When two or more sinusoidal waves are precisely in step with one another, they are said to be:

MCQ
160

What kind of error does it constitute if only one of the parties to a contract misunderstands its terms or scope?

MCQ
161

Which of the following is the application of soft magnetic materials?

MCQ
162

In a PMMC instrument, if the controlling torque is too high, what effect will it have on the accuracy of the instrument?

MCQ
163

A 230 V, 3-phase voltage is applied to a balance delta connected 3-phase load of phase impedance (15 + j 20) Ω. What is the power consumed per phase?

MCQ
164

An RLC series circuit has R = 5 Ω and L = 1 H. Which of the following values of capacitance will make this circuit critically damped?

MCQ
165

Which of the following information is NOT present on the nameplate of a transformer?

MCQ
166

A coil having a resistance of 8 Ω and an inductance of 0.01911 Henry is connected across a 230 V, 50 Hz AC supply. The reactive power is equal to ______.

MCQ
167

An electrodynamometer is widely used as a ________.

MCQ
168

The most important consideration when making a detailed estimate is:

MCQ
169

The total inductance of two coupled coils in the ‘series aiding’ and ‘series opposing’ connections are 4 H and 2 H, respectively. The value of mutual inductance will be _________.

MCQ
170

In an AC circuit, the peak voltage is 388 V. Its effective voltage is:

MCQ
171

The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor having two plates of area A = 200 cm2 and separated by distance d = 10 cm is given by ____________ if the permittivity of medium is 8.854 × 10-12 F/m

MCQ
172

As the leading power factor of the load of an alternator decreases, the magnitude of generated voltage required to give rated terminal voltage ______________.

MCQ
173

Find the value of the equivalent inductance as seen from the open terminal for the diagram shown below di dt 4 H 5 H

MCQ
174

Which of the following is the outermost layer of an underground cable?

MCQ
175

A constant voltage source is applied between the two ends of a wire. If the length of the wire is doubled and the radius remains the same, then the rate of heat developed in the wire ________.

MCQ
176

Which of the following motors is used for shears and presses?

MCQ
177

A 64kΩ resistor has a specified maximum power dissipation of 1000 watts. The maximum current that may be passed through the resistor is ________.

MCQ
178

What is the purpose of interleaving the windings in a transformer?

MCQ
179

In case of circuit laws, the currents flowing in various conductors in an electrical circuit are calculated by applying _____.

MCQ
180

Which of the following portions represents re tent iv it yin the BH curve shown below?

MCQ
181

Find the current flowing through the 7 Q resistor 82 V

MCQ
182

The main reason to amplify the input signals by using vertical amplifier is:

MCQ
183

A repulsion start induction run single phase motor runs as an IM only when ________.

MCQ
184

In radial distribution system, separate feeder radiates from single substation and feeds the distributors at _____.

MCQ
185

Which of the following is NOT a type of Field Effect Transistor?

MCQ
186

To measure the frequency of a waveform, which of the following data is necessary from the CRO?

MCQ
187

An electric kettle consumes 10kw of electric power when operated at 200 V. A fuse wire of what rating must be used for it?

MCQ
188

In case of magnetic circuits, the product of the number of turns on a coil and the current flowing through the coil is called __________.

MCQ
189

Current (I) expression of a diode is given by: (where symbols have usual meaning)

MCQ
190

Which of the following lamps is used for the determination of polarity of DC mains?

MCQ
191

The shaded-pole induction motors have _____________ compared with other motor types and may not be suitable for applications with ___________ or where precise speed control is necessary.

MCQ
192

Which of the following types of cooling is more economical for very large transformers of rating 100 MVA?

MCQ
193

What inductance would be needed to store 2kWh of energy in a coil carrying a 100A current?

MCQ
194

Which of the following is NOT a desirable criteria for an underground cable?

MCQ
195

Which of the following is NOT an application of shaded-pole induction motor?

MCQ
196

A wind turbine with a rotor diameter of 60 m is installed in an area with an average wind speed of 4 m/s. Find the wind power density in watts per square metre, assuming that the air density in the area is 1.5 kg/m3.

MCQ
197

Which of the following points clearly describe the need for a back-to-back converter connected to the rotor of a doubly fed induction generator [DFIG] used in wind power plants? (i) It feeds the rotor with currents of fixed frequency and thus, helps in achieving a fixed range of speed. (ii) It feeds the rotor with currents of varying frequency and thus, helps in achieving various ranges of speed. (iii) It helps in power factor correction by adjusting the active power output of the DFIG. (iv) It helps in power factor correction by adjusting the reactive power output of the DFIG.

MCQ
198

If a current varies periodically from zero to maximum, back to zero and then repeats, the signal is a:

MCQ
199

The shaded-pole induction motors are of ___________.

MCQ
200

What is the charging current per phase of a three-core underground cable connected to 22 kV, 50 Hz three phase supply? Given that the capacitance of each phase to neutral is 18 µF. (Given the connection is star connected.)

MCQ