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SSC JE (Civil) Official Paper (Held On 15 Nov 2022 Shift 1) (English)

SSC JE (Civil) Official Paper (Held On 15 Nov 2022 Shift 1) (English) with official questions, answers, and practice mock test.
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Section 1

General Intelligence and Reasoning

49 questions Section Test
1

Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 241, 208, 171, 130, 85, ?

MCQ
2

Arrange the following words in a logical and meaningful order. 1. Stratosphere 2. Mesosphere 3. Ionosphere 4. Thermosphere 5. Troposphere 6. Exosphere

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3

Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary. 1.Fasting 2.Fascinating 3.Fashionable 4.Faux 5.Fault 6.Farther 7.Father

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4

Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) and complete the given number series? 42, 43, 48, 57, 74, 99, ?

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5

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at AB ' as shown

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6

How many triangles are there in the given figure?

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7

[Image / Diagram based question]

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8

Select the word-pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one expressed in the pair of words given below. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must NOT be related to each other based on the number of letters/ number of consonants/vowels in the word) Servant : Master

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9

Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series? ADV, EBX, IXZ, ORB, ?

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10

In a certain code language, 'PAPERS' is written as 'VFTHTT' and 'CUTTER' is written as 'IZXWGS'.How will 'JUNGLE' be written in that language?

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11

Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word) India : Asia : : Brazil : ?

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12

‘A + B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’. ‘A – B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’. ‘A × B’ means ‘A is the husband of B’. ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’. If C × M – S + K ÷ T – Q, then which of the following statements is NOT correct?

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13

Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to sequentially replace the signs and to balance the given equation. 5162370*33

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14

In a code language, 'cake has sugar' is written as 'est bon wig', 'a slice of cake' is written as 'bleu eau tuf wig', 'sugar is sweet' is written as 'lat gif bon'. What is the code for the word 'has' in this language?

MCQ
15

A # B means ‘A is the Brother of B’ A @ B means ‘A is the daughter of B’ A & B means ‘A is the husband of B’ A % B means ‘A is the wife of B’ If L#M@P#Q&Z, then how is Q related to L?

MCQ
16

Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.) Eiffel Tower : France :: Great Wall : ?

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17

Which of the given letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the following series? EUZB, ISXE, MQVH, ?, UMRN

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18

Which of the given letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the following series? MEBH, QGDK, UIFN, ?, CMJT

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19

Select the figure from the options that can replace the guest ion mark and complete the pattern

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20

Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark and complete the pattern rotation is NoT allowed

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21

Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series? 7, 10, 22, 49, 97, ?

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22

Select the option that indicates the correct arrangement of the given words in the order they appear in an English dictionary. 1. Declivity 2. Decipher 3. Decapitate 4. Deception 5. Debauch 6. Decompose

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23

Which of the following interchange of signs would make the given equation correct? 20 + 20 × 20 − 20 ÷ 20 = 20

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24

Two statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All gems are stones. Some gems are diamonds. Conclusions: I. Some stones are gems. II. Some stones are diamonds.

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25

A person starts from point G and moves10 km West. He turns left and moves 5 km, turns left again, and moves 5 km, then turns right and moves 3 km and takes a final left turn and moves 5 km to reach a point F. How much and in which direction does he need to move now to reach point G?

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26

Arrange the following in a logical and meaningful order. 1. Trouser 2. Shirt 3. Socks 4. Headgear 5. Necklace

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27

There are seven students M,N,O,P,Q,R and S. Each scored different marks in a test. P scored higher marks than only three students. S scored higher than M. N scored higher than P. Q scored higher than R, who scored the least marks among all. M scored higher than N. O scored higher than Q. Who is at the third position from the top among all?

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28

Select the option that is related to the fourth term in the same way as the first term is related to the second term and fifth term is related to sixth term. 181 : 10 :: ? : 11 :: 265 : 12

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29

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the given sets. (NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (182, 118, 65) (236, 172, 119)

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30

A paper is folded and cut as shown How will it appear when unfolded?

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31

Town A is to the south-west of Town B. Town C is to the south of Town M. Town A is to the south-east of Town C. Town D is to the north of Town B. Town M is to the west of Town D. What is the position of Town M with respect to Town B?

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32

Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series? FTYG, IXDM, ?, OFNY, RJSE

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33

Arrange the following cricket equipment in a logical and meaningful order. 1. Shoes 2. Helmet 3. Thigh guard 4. Chest Guard 5. Shin pad

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34

Select the word-pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one expressed in the pair of words given below. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.) Temperature : Kelvin

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35

Which letter cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series? EAHU, KQTC, ?, WWRS, CMDA

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36

Select the option figure that will replace the question mark in the figure given below to complete the pattern

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37

In a code language, ‘PURE’ is written as ‘NSPC’ and ‘WHITE’ is written as ‘UFGRC’. How will ‘COLOUR’ be written in that language?

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38

In a certain code language, ‘THOUSAND’ is written as ‘8201379271424’ and ‘VARIABLE’ is written as ‘627101927261623’.How will ‘UMBRELLA’ be written in that language?

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39

Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a straight row, facing the north. Only two people sit to the left of G. Only two people sit between A and F. A sits to the left of F. D is an immediate neighbour of F to the right. Only one person sits to the right of B. E is not an immediate neighbour of G. Who sits to the immediate left of F?

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40

A paper is folded and cut as shown. How will it appear when unfolded?

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41

Which of the following interchanges of numbers would make the given equation correct? 30 × 5 ÷ 25 + 16 + 10 = 20

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42

Seven students P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. R is an immediate neighbour of both T and U. S is sitting third to the left of R and immediate right of P. P is sitting second to the right of T. Q is an immediate neighbour of both T and P. V is immediate left of U. What is the position of P with respect to V?

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43

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at ' AB ' as shown.

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44

Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster. FRANCE : QEZMDB : : DEMAND : DCLZCM : : PRINCE :?

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45

Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number and the sixth number is related to the fifth number. 18 : 333 :: 14 : ? :: 22 : 495

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46

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and the sixth term is related to the fifth term. 2 : 10 :: 9 : ? :: 4 : 66

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47

Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark and complete the pattern

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48

Three different positions of the same dice are shown Find the number on the face opposite to the face showing 4. Fig 1 Fig 2 Fig 3

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49

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and the sixth term is related to the fifth term. 347 : 668 :: 284 : ? :: 415 : 736

MCQ
Section 2

General Awareness

48 questions Section Test
50

In this question, three statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All consonants are vowels. Some vowels are alphabets. All alphabets are words. Conclusions: I. All consonants are alphabets. II. Some vowels are words.

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51

Which is a commonly used antimicrobial preservative in food and beverages, especially carbonated beverages, as it presents its strongest antibacterial activity at pH 2.5 – 4.0?

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52

Which of the following is NOT an objective of measuring Primary Deficit of the government?

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53

As per the 2011 Census, what percentage of the total population in India lives in rural areas?

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54

Hunter Commission, 1882 was related to development of __________ in colonial India.

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55

Which of the following options is correctly matched?

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56

Which Article of the Constitution of India empowers High Courts to issue writs?

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57

Electron microscopic studies of eukaryotic cells reveal the presence of a network of tiny tubular structures scattered in the cytoplasm that is called the _____.

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58

Under Rail Kaushal Vikas Yojana, launched in September 2021, how many candidates will be provided training in four trades viz Electrician, Welder, Machinist and Fitter, over a period of three years?

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59

In which of the following states did the Moplah Rebellion take place?

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60

The evidences of the Mauryan Empire are quoted in the texts of Megasthenes who was an ambassador in the court of:

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61

__________ won the ESPNcricinfo ‘Test Batting Award’ 2021.

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62

________ in the IUPAC nomenclature system is considered to be a derivative of hydrocarbons in which a hydrogen atom is replaced by -OR -OAr groups, where R and Ar represent alkyl and aryl groups, respectively.

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63

As of February 2020, which of the following players has won the highest number of tennis grand slam men singles category tournaments?

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64

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about migration in India?

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65

What chemical reactions occur when the proteins and sugars in and on your food are changed by heat, creating new tastes, aromas and colours?

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66

Indian shooter Singhraj Adhana won the bronze medal in the men's ______ air pistol SH1 class at the Tokyo 2020 Paralympics.

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67

In the early 20th century, who among the following published a paper explaining the theory that continental landmasses ‘flowed’ over the Earth, sometimes plowing through the oceans and into each other?

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68

D' in AIDS stands for:

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69

Which of the following countries are covered by the Amazon rain forest?

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70

Which of the following is an example of a flow variable?

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71

Gaur Maria is an important ritualistic dance from which state?

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72

When did John Dalton publish a paper titled 'A New System of Chemical Philosophy' describing principles such as the uniqueness of atoms of the same element, relative atomic mass and the laws of chemical combination?

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73

Which metal is used for making bulb filaments?

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74

What is the most common symptom of osteomalacia?

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75

Which is the programme launched by the Government of India in 2020, focusing on making India a self-sufficient country?

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76

Why do low-pressure trough over the northern plains of India become weaker during October-November?

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77

Who among the following clinched gold medals in the men's youth competition at the Asian Youth and Junior Boxing Championships in Amman, Jordan held in March 2022? (i) Vishwanath Suresh (ii) Vanshaj

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78

Which Article of the Constitution of India abolishes the concept of ‘titles’ and says “no title (except for military and academic titles) shall be conferred by the State”?

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79

Which of the following river is known as Ponnani in Kerla and has a total drainage area of the basin as 6,186 sq. km?

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80

Upon the fragmentation of Bahmani Kingdom, the sultanate of Bijapur was founded by ___________.

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81

The flow of nutrients and energy from one organism to another at different trophic levels is known as:

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82

Which of the following states rank first and second, respectively, in population, according to the Census 2011?

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83

In the Fourth Five-Year Plan, how many Indian Scheduled Commercial Banks were nationalised?

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84

Pandit Ram Narayan, an Indian musician, was credited with popularising the musical instrument ________ as a solo concert instrument.

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85

The National Multidimensional Poverty Index is released by the ______.

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86

In 1856, Berthelot synthesised which compound by the reaction of a mixture of sulfated hydrogen with carbon disulfide on red-hot copper?

MCQ
87

__________ defeated the Indian Railway 3 - 0, to win the men’s title at the Senior National Volleyball Championship 2021-22.

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88

In 2020, President of __________, Jair Bolsonaro, was called as the chief guest to the Republic Day celebration of India.

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89

Which of the following is a major component of Compressed Natural Gas?

MCQ
90

In which year was the National Tansen Samman instituted?

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91

Which of the following sports is the Sultan Azlan Shah Cup related to?

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92

Which of the following Constitutional amendments entered the Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution?

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93

Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides that no child below 14 years of age shall be employed to work?

MCQ
94

The ‘Right to Work’ plan, under the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005, was implemented in how many districts in the first phase?

MCQ
95

Which of the following is NOT a pesticide?

MCQ
96

Which year census is the 15th National census survey conducted by the Census Organisation of India?

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97

According to the World Bank, what was the literacy rate of the total adult population (% of people ages 15 and above) in 2019 in Pakistan?

MCQ
Section 3

General Engineering Civil and Structural

103 questions Section Test
98

Condensation is the process of the transformation of:

MCQ
99

An image formed with a lens that can be projected onto a screen is called:

MCQ
100

In 2022, which state government launched the "Naan Mudhalvan Scheme" which aims to equip about 10 lakh youth across the State annually with skills that will help them realise their talents for the benefit of the country?

MCQ
101

The hydraulic mean depth of a circular sewer of internal diameter 100 cm, running in fully occupied cross section is given by:

MCQ
102

According to IS 800 - 2007 ,in the design of a tension member using bolted connections, the net area required to carry the design load t is given by equation __________. Where An = net cross sectional area required fu = yield stress in steel

MCQ
103

The machines which transform a power input (e.g. from an electric motor) into a hydraulic power output are:

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104

Consider the following statements regarding standard measurement book and ordinary measurement book. Which of the following options is/are true? i.Standard measurement books show only the measurement of building works. ii.Ordinary measurement books are used for the purpose of checking the bills of contractor while standard measurement books are helpful in preparing repair estimates. iii.Ordinary measurement books are numbered alphabetically while standard measurement books are numbered numerically.

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105

The length of one rail is 15 m and the number of sleepers per rail length is 22. Find the expression for sleeper density and also find the number of sleepers required for the construction of 525 m of track.

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106

A plate at a distance of 0.03 mm from a fixed plate moves at 0.8 m/s and requires a force of 1.50 N/m2 area of plate. Determine the dynamic viscosity of liquid between the plates.

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107

Flat, gravitational and hump yard are the types of:

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108

While designing a concrete mix, if 5 % of the results are allowed to fall below the characteristic strength and if the assumed standard deviation is 6 MPa, then what will be the Target mean strength (TMS) (MPa) of M40 grade of concrete?

MCQ
109

The failure plane in direct shear test is the _____.

MCQ
110

According to IS 800:2007, beams shall be designed and checked for:

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111

Levelling in which staff and readings and the distance between the points is required is called:

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112

In a level crossing, the canal and the drainage meet each other at _________ level.

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113

For a closed pentagonal traverse, the sum of measured angles came out be $545^\circ$. Angle A calculated by measured bearings was $50^\circ$. What will be the corrected angle A?

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114

The process of stones which includes excavating, wedging, heating and blasting is called:

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115

With respect to plane table surveying, the terms ‘triangle of error’, ‘great circle’, ‘great triangle’ are related to:

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116

If the pessimistic estimate of a project is ₹12 Cr, the optimistic is ₹9 Cr and the most likely estimate is ₹10 Cr, then the expected value (₹in Cr) would be

MCQ
117

As per IS (383-1970), in how many zones are the Grading limits of fine aggregates distributed?

MCQ
118

According to IS 287: 1993, in classifying timber, the average annual relative humidity ( %) of Zone IV region of India is more than:

MCQ
119

Which of the following statements in the context of a circular sewer of full depth ‘D’ is correct?

MCQ
120

Long wall-short wall method is also called ______________.

MCQ
121

There are two types of energy losses through pipes, major losses and minor losses. Major losses through pipes are due to ____________.

MCQ
122

Which of the following methods is used to calculate average precipitation over a catchment area?

MCQ
123

A combination of two or more pipes connected end-to-end (series) is known as pipe in series. For pipes in series, the discharge through the pipe is _____________

MCQ
124

Corrosion in reinforced concrete structures affects the structural durability due to:

MCQ
125

A channel is said to be the most economical section when, it gives maximum discharge for a given area and slope. What is the relation between hydraulic radius and depth for the most economical trapezoidal section?

MCQ
126

Which of the following physical inspection test apparatus is used for determining the Cement Initial and final setting times?

MCQ
127

As per IS:2386 (part -II 1)-1963, the following formula of aggregates is given for: Net weight of aggregate in kg Capacity of container on litre

MCQ
128

A circular beam section is subjected to a shear force of 40π kN. The maximum shear stress allowed in the material is 6 MPa. Calculate the safe diameter of the section, assuming a factor of safety equal to 2.

MCQ
129

As per Indian Standard (IS 383 : 2016), the grading of fine aggregates is divided into how many zones?

MCQ
130

The Indian Parliament passed a Central Legislation named Air Pollution Control Act in the year:

MCQ
131

Which of the following is an INCORRECTLY stated assumption in the theory of simple bending of beams?

MCQ
132

The junk or demolition value of a structure, calculated at the end of its utility span, that has lost all of its structural strength and is near to its demolition is called:

MCQ
133

Which of the following statements is correct with respect to modulus of rigidity?

MCQ
134

Chezy’s coefficient (C) is related to Manning’s roughness coefficient (n) as ______

MCQ
135

For a BG track with M+5 sleeper density, find the number of fish plates required for 1 km of track.

MCQ
136

Which level has internal compensator mechanism to automatically adjust the line of sight?

MCQ
137

Chemical compounds such as Dichloro-diphenyl trichloro-ethane (DDT) are applied on wood for the prevention of:

MCQ
138

Which of the following is NOT a function of GPS?

MCQ
139

Which of the following is NOT a method for estimating deflections in beams?

MCQ
140

A combination of two or more pipes connected between two points so that the discharge divides at the first junction and re-joins at the next is known as ____________.

MCQ
141

In granular materials, the resistance to sliding on any plane within the soil mass depends upon the ____________.

MCQ
142

The meridians that are parallel to the directions taken by freely moving magnetised needles, as in a compass are called as:

MCQ
143

A simply supported beam of length L is associated with two point loads each of magnitude P, acting at one third of span from either end as per the following diagram. Calculate the magnitude of bending moment acting at the left end support.

MCQ
144

Which of the following oxides is present in highest proportion in Ordinary Portland cement?

MCQ
145

Which the following is NOT an assumption of Rankine Theory?

MCQ
146

If the perimeter of traverse is 2000 m and the amount of closing error is 10 m, then the relative closing error would be:

MCQ
147

For 45-degree cranked or bend up bar, the inclined length of crank is equal to:

MCQ
148

The clear minimum perpendicular distance between the inner faces of two rails is called as:

MCQ
149

In oven drying method, the soil sample is kept in the oven for about ______ hours.

MCQ
150

Defective outlet and head regulator, along with inadequate slope and not-regime section result in ___________ of the channel.

MCQ
151

Inglis formula for the calculation of peak drainage discharge is applicable to:

MCQ
152

On which of the following factors does the duty of irrigation water NOT depend?

MCQ
153

For an isotropic homogeneous body, the ratio of lateral strain to axial strain is called as:

MCQ
154

According to IS 456, the anchorage value of a standard U-type hook shall be equal to X times the diameter of the bar, where X is:

MCQ
155

X is the measure and adjustment of price levels for goods and services across a broad sector of the economy, where X is:

MCQ
156

The specific gravity of soil solids is determined by:

MCQ
157

If a structural steel member having an ultimate strength of 1100 units is to be designed for resisting buckling, then the design strength to be considered as per the Indian standard shall be:

MCQ
158

The capacity of doing work by a skilled labour in the form of quantity of work per day is known as _______.

MCQ
159

During painting, white lead is added to paint and it acts as:

MCQ
160

In which type of barrier is most of the ponding done by gates and smaller or nil part of it is done by the raised crest?

MCQ
161

During a concrete mix design process, what happens to its free maximum water cement ratio when grades of concrete is increased?

MCQ
162

Consider the following statements with regard to cubical content method. I. Length and breadth should be taken as the external dimensions of the buildings at floor level. II. Height should be taken from floor level to the top of the roof. Which of the following options are true?

MCQ
163

The RL of a point is 120 m and elevation of the instrument is 1 m. If a contour line of 119 m is to be plotted, the reading on the staff should be:

MCQ
164

What will be the effective length of a discontinuous strut comprised of a single angle connected with more than one bolt in the plane of gusset? Given: L is the actual length of the strut.

MCQ
165

The value of the property recorded in the municipality register for analysing the municipal taxed amount to be collected from the owner is called __________.

MCQ
166

If R is the horizontal distance and d is the diameter of the earth, then usually the correction due to curvature in levelling is given by

MCQ
167

Which of the following will have more viscous bitumen?

MCQ
168

Seashore gravels are of which of the following types?

MCQ
169

The phenomenon of increase in the volume of a given mass of sand caused by the films of water pushing the sand particles apart is referred to as:

MCQ
170

A good building stone should have which of the following qualities? i. Uniform texture ii. Strength iii. Fire resistance iv. Hardness

MCQ
171

Upon a detailed topographical investigation, an engineer wants to align a canal. Along which of the following should he align the canal?

MCQ
172

Which of the following is NOT the most common laboratory methods for determining the coefficient of permeability of soils?

MCQ
173

If (W1) is the weight of brick at room temperature and (W2) is the brick weight after the brick immersion in water for 24 hours, then the percentage of brick water absorption is calculated as:

MCQ
174

Which of the following components of the weir divides the river width into weir portion and under sluices pocket?

MCQ
175

The characteristic strength of concrete is defined as the strength of material below which NOT more than X percent of the test results are expected to fall, where X is:

MCQ
176

Select the correct statement with respect to oval or egg shaped sewers.

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177

The rolled steel I-sections are most commonly used as beams because of which of the following reasons?

MCQ
178

The stage of plate laying in track construction includes:

MCQ
179

A rectangular suppressed weir is a device used to measure stream flow in an open channel. For a rectangular suppressed weir flowing free, the discharge Q is related to the head H over the weir as ____________.

MCQ
180

Which of the following is NOT a method of noise abatement and control?

MCQ
181

Due to which of the following reasons is reinforcement installed during the construction of concrete pipelines?

MCQ
182

Which of the following bogue compounds in OPC responsible for progressive strength by slow hardening and releasing less heat of hydration?

MCQ
183

The objective of lime-soda softening process is:

MCQ
184

In traversing by included angle method, which of the following is correct? i. If the direction of progress is counter clockwise, the included angles measured clockwise are interior angles. ii. If the direction of progress is clockwise, the included angles measured clockwise are interior angles. iii. If the direction of progress is counter clockwise, the included angles measured clockwise are exterior angles. iv. If the direction of progress is clockwise, the included angles measured clockwise are exterior angles.

MCQ
185

The method that measures changes in the price of inputs to the construction process by monitoring separately the cost of each factor is called as:

MCQ
186

The maximum bulking of sand occurs at a water content between ___________.

MCQ
187

Which of the following formulas is used for calculation of earthwork volume and is also known as the average end area formula?

MCQ
188

A carpet area which includes the inner walls and balcony of the structure at floor is called ________.

MCQ
189

In the design of a cantilever beam, main steel reinforcement is provided along ______ face of the beam.

MCQ
190

The sprinkler irrigation method for water distribution is most suitable:

MCQ
191

__________ condition develops in saturated thick layer of loose fine sandy soils, when disturbed due to vibration from pile driving in adjoining area or by pressure of flowing water.

MCQ
192

According to the assumptions made in the limit state method of design of a compression member, The maximum compressive strain in concrete under axial compression is __________

MCQ
193

Identify the correct expression with respect to depth of beam in RC structures. Where D =Overall depth of beam d = Effective depth of beam d’ = Effective cover

MCQ
194

In structural steel construction, the distance between centre of fasteners shall NOT be less than X times the nominal diameter of the fastener, where X is:

MCQ
195

A water supply pipe with a diameter of 0.5 m conveys 0.8 m3/sec of water from a source, where the lowest water level is at RL 92.00 m to a reservoir level where it is delivered at RL 108.00 m. The distance between source and supply is 500 m and the friction factor of a pipe is 0.03. Calculate the static head required to calculate the capacity of the pump.

MCQ
196

As per IRC, which of the following is NOT a recommended characteristic of the road shoulder?

MCQ
197

Select the incorrect statement regarding biomedical wastes segregated into red coloured bins as per Indian Rules, 1998.

MCQ
198

As per IS 456:2000, for the design of doubly reinforced beam, the area of compression reinforcement Asc is given by _______, where, Mu = ultimate flexural strength of doubly reinforced section Mu.lim = limiting moment of resistance fsc = stress in the compression steel d = effective depth d’ = depth of compression reinforcement

MCQ
199

Engineering hydrology does NOT deal with:

MCQ
200

Signs having red border, white background and black symbols are:

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