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SSC JE (Civil) 2023 Official Paper-I (Held On: 09 Oct, 2023 Shift 1) (English)
SSC JE (Civil) 2023 Official Paper-I (Held On: 09 Oct, 2023 Shift 1) (English) with official questions, answers, and practice mock test.
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Section 1
General Intelligence and Reasoning
48 questions
Section Test
1
If ‘+’ means ‘–’, ‘–’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’, ‘÷’ means ‘+’, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 13 – 145 × 29 ÷ 52 + 11 = ?
MCQ
Correct answer: 106
2
Vipul departs from his home and walks 20 m towards the east. He then turns left and walks 15 m. He turns left again and walks 10 m. He then takes a right turn and walks 20 m. He then takes a left turn and walks 14 m. He takes a final left turn and walks 45 m to stop at Point X. How far is he from a pole which is 10 m to the south of his house? (Assume that all the turns are $90^\circ$ turns only.)
MCQ
Correct answer: 4 m
3
Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).
MCQ
Correct answer: [Diagram / Option 4]
4
Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word) Crew : Sailor :: Army : ?
MCQ
Correct answer: Soldier
5
Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below Ekm 37 a
MCQ
Correct answer: EKW 3
6
Alisha is an athlete who runs 10 km towards the south and then turns to the left. After running 6 km, she again turns to the left and runs 10 km. Now, In which direction is she from the starting point?
MCQ
Correct answer: East
7
Three statements are given followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: Some chips are wafers. No wafer is a toffee. All desserts are chips. Conclusions: I. All chips can never be toffees. II. No dessert is a wafer. III. Some toffees are desserts.
MCQ
Correct answer: Only I follows
8
Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series? KLJH, FGEC, ABZX, VWUS, ?
MCQ
Correct answer: QRPN
9
Which of the following numbers will replace the question marks (?) in the given series? 8, 10, 24, 58, 120, ?
MCQ
Correct answer: 218
10
Seven people L, M, N, O, P,Q and R are sitting in a straight line adjacent to one another, facing the north (not necessarily in the given order). P is sitting third to the left of Q. N is an immediate neighbour of O and Q. L is sitting third to the right of Q. R is the immediate neighbour of L and M. Who is sitting to the immediate right of P?
MCQ
Correct answer: O
11
In a certain code language, “MERITORIOUS” is written as “10” and “OBJECTIONABLE” is written as “12”. How will “PREPATORY” be written in that language?
MCQ
Correct answer: 8
12
Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word) Lyric : Song :: Stanza : ?
MCQ
Correct answer: Poem
13
Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/consonants/vowels in the word). Bird : Ornithology :: Plant : _______
MCQ
Correct answer: Botany
14
Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 13, 34, 63, 108, 177, 278, ?
MCQ
Correct answer: 419
15
Select the option that is related to the sixth letter-cluster in the same way as the first letter- cluster is related to the second letter-cluster and the third letter-cluster is related to the fourth letter-cluster. NTD : OVG : : KPM: LRP :: ? : UXQ
MCQ
Correct answer: TVN
16
Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series? XUOA, DYME, JCKI, PGIO, ?
MCQ
Correct answer: VKGU
17
Select the option that is related to the fourth term in the same way as the first term is related to the second term and the fifth term is related to the sixth term? 8 : 1 :: ? : 2 :: 200 : 5
MCQ
Correct answer: 32
18
Select the option figure which is embedded in the given figure as its part (rotation is NOT allowed)
MCQ
Correct answer: [Diagram / Option 1]
19
Select the option that is related to the fifth term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and the fourth term is related to the third term. 33 : 627 :: 47 : 893 :: 21 : ?
MCQ
Correct answer: 399
20
If '+' means '−', '−' means '×' , '×' means '÷' , '÷' means '+', what will come in place of the question mark? 153 × 9 - 5 + 32 ÷ 90 = ?
MCQ
Correct answer: 143
21
Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g., 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtraction/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed) (6, 12, 9) (16, 10, 13)
MCQ
Correct answer: (15, 7, 11)
22
Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series? 17, 57, 22, 52, ?, 47
MCQ
Correct answer: 27
23
A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?
MCQ
Correct answer: [Diagram / Option 3]
24
Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order. 1. Country 2. Continent 3. City 4. Municipality 5. State
MCQ
Correct answer: 2, 1, 5, 3, 4
25
Arrange the following words in a logical and meaningful order. 1. city 2. building 3. state 4. country 5. continent
MCQ
Correct answer: 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
26
Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series? MCWF, OFUE, ? , SLQC, UOOB
MCQ
Correct answer: QISD
27
In a code language, 'COURT' is written as TROOC and 'SPORT' is written as TRIPS. How will 'BLIND' be written in the same language?
MCQ
Correct answer: DNELB
28
In a certain code language, ‘LESSON’ is written as ‘IDPPNK’ and ‘CLASS’ is written as ‘ZIZPP’. How will ‘CHAPTER’ be written in that language?
MCQ
Correct answer: ZEZMQDO
29
Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark and complete the given pattern
MCQ
Correct answer: [Diagram / Option 1]
30
Select the option in which the given figure is embedded rotation is NOT allowed)
MCQ
Correct answer: [Diagram / Option 3]
31
Select the option that is related to the fifth letter cluster in the same way as the second letter cluster is related to the first letter cluster and the fourth letter cluster is related to the third letter cluster. JSGXK : ADXIB :: LFCWE : CQTHV :: BDXOF : ?
MCQ
Correct answer: SOOZW
32
Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series? FDQE, KJXM, PPEU, ?, ZBSK
MCQ
Correct answer: UVLC
33
Select the word-pair in which the two words are related in the same way as are the twowords in the given pair. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.) Cot : Wood
MCQ
Correct answer: Cloth : Cotton
34
Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.
MCQ
Correct answer: [Diagram / Option 3]
35
In a certain code language, ‘CHECK’ is written as ‘110’ and ‘CORRECT’ is written as ‘114’. How will ‘WRONG’ be written in that language?
MCQ
Correct answer: 63
36
Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.
MCQ
Correct answer: [Diagram / Option 2]
37
Each of the seven friends, Kirti, Siya, Amita, Preeti, Deepika, Jeet and Pari, has scored different marks in an exam. Pari has scored more than Kirti but less than Siya. Deepika has scored less than Preeti but more than Amita. Kirti has scored more than Preeti but less than Pari. Siya is not the highest scorer. Who among the following has NOT scored more than Preeti?
MCQ
Correct answer: Amita
38
Ram pointed towards a lady and said, “Her daughter is the wife of my son-in-law.” What relation does Ram have with the woman he pointed towards?
MCQ
Correct answer: Husband
39
How many triangles are there in the given figure?
MCQ
Correct answer: 9
40
Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and the sixth term is related to the fifth term. 9 : 38 :: 13 : ? :: 24 : 83
MCQ
Correct answer: 50
41
Select the correct combination of mathematical signs that can sequentially replace the # signs and balance the given equation. 25 # 8 # 21 # 3 # 5 # 4 # 4
MCQ
Correct answer: ̶ , +, ÷, =, ×, +
42
Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series? FTFX, GVCT, ?, IZWL, JBTH
MCQ
Correct answer: HXZP
43
Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to sequentially replace the signs and balance the given equation. 8 2 2 2 * 2 = 8
MCQ
Correct answer: × ÷ + −
44
Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary. 1. Adequate 2. Aphorism 3. Amplify 4. Aphrodite 5. Amorphous 6. Adamant
MCQ
Correct answer: 6, 1, 5, 3, 2, 4
45
Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a straight row, facing north. Only 1 person sits to the left of D. A is an immediate neighbour of D. Only 2 people sit between F and D. Only 3 people sit between C and G. B is not an immediate neighbour of G. Only 2 people sit between E and A. Who sits to the immediate left of G?
MCQ
Correct answer: D
46
Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g., 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed) (7, 5, 24) (8, 2, 60)
MCQ
Correct answer: (9, 3, 72)
47
K @ L means ‘L is the husband of K’ K & L means ‘K is the mother of L’ K # L means ‘K is the son of L’ If A & B @ C # D @ E, the how is B related to D?
MCQ
Correct answer: Son's wife
48
Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary. 1. Unaware 2. Unable 3. Unavoidable 4. Unacceptable 5. Unanimous 6. Unaffected
MCQ
Correct answer: 2, 4, 6, 5, 3, 1
Section 2
General Awareness
50 questions
Section Test
49
Two statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: Some plates are cups. All cups are spoons. Conclusions: I. Some spoons are plates. II. All spoons are plates.
MCQ
Correct answer: Only conclusion I follows
50
Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below Lp 4 f 3 g 7
MCQ
Correct answer: [Diagram / Option 3]
51
According to the Indian Bureau of mines 2020, which two states of India have the maximum gold ore reserves?
MCQ
Correct answer: Bihar and Rajasthan
52
The term 'kick off' is related to which of the following games?
MCQ
Correct answer: Football
53
Which of the following is referred to as ‘credit money’?
MCQ
Correct answer: Money value > Commodity value
54
What is the dimension of a basketball court?
MCQ
Correct answer: 28 × 15 m
55
‘The Trophic-Dynamic Aspect of Ecology’ was studied by whom in the year 1942?
MCQ
Correct answer: Raymond L Lindeman
56
The Plan for Partition of India is known as the:
MCQ
Correct answer: 3rd June Plan
57
How do colours contribute to effective presentation and documents in MS PowerPoint?
MCQ
Correct answer: Colours create a sense of hierarchy and emphasise important information.
58
Which of the following Legislative Bills proposed to set-up the Indian Antarctic Authority (IAA) under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, Government of India?
MCQ
Correct answer: The Indian Antarctic Bill, 2022
59
Which of the following is the correct match of the column-A column-B? Column-A (Type of Rock) Column-B (Example) i. Sedimentary rocks a. Granite ii. Igneous rocks b. Limestone iii. Metamorphic rocks c. Gneiss
MCQ
Correct answer: i-b, ii-a, iii-c
60
Who was responsible for killing the last Mauryan King?
MCQ
Correct answer: Pushyamitra Sunga
61
In which of the following years was the ‘New Economic Policy’ introduced in India?
MCQ
Correct answer: 1991
62
Which of the following is the correct match of the column A with column B Column A River Column-B Place of Origin i Ganga a A mark an tak ii Chenab b Western Ghats near Maha bales h war iii Narmada c Gangotri glacier iv Krishna d. Spiti
MCQ
Correct answer: i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
63
What is in situ conservation method of biodiversity?
MCQ
Correct answer: It concerns with the conservation areas as ‘warehouses’ of biological information.
64
According to the Multidimensional Poverty Index 2022, which was the poorest state?
MCQ
Correct answer: Bihar
65
Which of the following is a collection of authoritative terminology originally compiled from IUPAC recommendations published by the scientific divisions of the union?
MCQ
Correct answer: Gold Book
66
Which of the following is an inanimate object that forms the environment?
MCQ
Correct answer: Water
67
Whose invasion of India resulted in the third battle of Panipat?
MCQ
Correct answer: Ahmad Shah Abdali
68
Appointment, posting and promotion of District Judge in a state are made by __________________.
MCQ
Correct answer: Governor in consultation with the high court
69
Apart from income tax, there will also be TDS at ______ and gift tax on digital assets to be paid by the receiver, depending on certain conditions.
MCQ
Correct answer: 1%
70
Khagen Mahanta was a notable person in the folk music of ________.
MCQ
Correct answer: Assam
71
What is the horizontal field view of one eye in human beings?
MCQ
Correct answer: $150^\circ$
72
According to the Indian Constitution, which of the following is NOT a fundamental duty?
MCQ
Correct answer: To vote in public election
73
The book ‘Mitakshara’ is related to which of the following fields?
MCQ
Correct answer: Judiciary
74
The question consists of two statements, namely, Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Use them to choose the correct alternative. Assertion (A): Pocket money given by parents is included while estimating national income Reason (R): It represents a transfer of payment from parents to children
MCQ
Correct answer: A is false but R is true
75
Who was the captain of India’s Under-19 Women’s cricket team that won the inaugural edition of the Women’s Under-19 T-20 World Cup in January 2023?
MCQ
Correct answer: Shafali Verma
76
The weight loss and marked depletion of subcutaneous fat and muscle mass are characteristic features of which syndrome occurs in infants?
MCQ
Correct answer: Marasmus
77
Which city is known as ‘Silicon Plateau’?
MCQ
Correct answer: Bengaluru
78
Match the hills of India with their regions.
MCQ
Correct answer: 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c
79
The total members who participate in the election of president is called _________.
MCQ
Correct answer: Electoral College
80
What is the architectural style of the Brihadisvara temple in Tamil Nadu?
MCQ
Correct answer: Dravidian
81
Which of the following is NOT correct regarding the periodic table?
MCQ
Correct answer: There are 18 periods and 7 groups in the periodic table.
82
The geothermal gradient is defined as the increase in temperature with depth in the earth. Accordingly, in normal continental crust, the rate of temperature rise within the first 3 to 5 kilometres of the Earth's surface is approximately _________ .
MCQ
Correct answer: 25 °C/km
83
‘Pashto’ language is spoken in which of the following neighbouring countries of India?
MCQ
Correct answer: Afghanistan and Pakistan
84
The Sangeet Natak Akademi of India recognises 8 dance forms of Indian classical dance. Which of the following is NOT included?
MCQ
Correct answer: Chhau
85
What is the term for the unwanted and unsolicited messages that are sent over the internet?
MCQ
Correct answer: Spam
86
How much energy is released from 1 gm of fat?
MCQ
Correct answer: 9 calories
87
Article 19 of the Constitution of India had originally guaranteed _________________ rights.
MCQ
Correct answer: seven
88
Name the programme launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare to empower all healthcare workers engaged in oxygen management and administration with the essential knowledge and skills.
MCQ
Correct answer: National Oxygen Stewardship Programme
89
In September 2022, who among the following was honoured with the Dadasaheb Phalke Award for the year 2020?
MCQ
Correct answer: Asha Parekh
90
Which of the following article of the Constitution lays down that the National Flag and National Anthem must be respected?
MCQ
Correct answer: Art 51A (a)
91
Which of the following programmes was initiated in 1979 with the objective of upgrading the traditional skills of rural youth belonging to families living below the poverty line, with family income below ₹3,500 per year?
MCQ
Correct answer: Training to Rural Youth for Self Employment (TRYSEM)
92
Which of the following is the most common omega-3 fatty acid found in vegetable oils, nuts (especially walnuts), flaxseed and leafy vegetables that help prevent heart disease and stroke?
MCQ
Correct answer: Alpha-linolenic acid (ALA)
93
Select the correct combination of Indian classical dance and their respective dancer.
MCQ
Correct answer: Elam Endira Devi – Manipuri
94
What is the correct sequence of the following ports of India from North to South? A. Kochi port B. Mormugao port C. Kandla port D. Mumbai port
MCQ
Correct answer: C, D, B, A
95
A Parliamentary delegation from ________, led by HE Wangchuk Namgyel, called on the President of India Droupadi Murmu at Rashtrapati Bhavan on 7th February 2023.
MCQ
Correct answer: Bhutan
96
Match the column A with column B Column A Rock Column B Structure type i Sedimentary rocks a Stratification and lamination ii Igneous rocks b crystalline structure ili Metamorphic rocks c Folia tion
MCQ
Correct answer: i-a, ii-b, iii-c
97
Tabla maestro Ustad Alla Rakha was a musician trained by Mian Kader Baksh of the _________.
MCQ
Correct answer: Punjab gharana
98
The headquarters of the Ghadar Party was located at which place?
MCQ
Correct answer: San Francisco
Section 3
General Engineering Civil and Structural
102 questions
Section Test
99
Which parameter is kept constant in Boyle’s Law?
MCQ
Correct answer: Temperature
100
According to Census of India 2011, what was the sex ratio of Tamil Nadu?
MCQ
Correct answer: 996
101
A manometer is an instrument used for measuring the pressure acting on a column of fluid, which consists of a U-shaped tube of liquid in which the difference in pressures acting in the two arms of the tube causes the liquid to reach different heights in the two arms. Which of the following is NOT a limitation of the manometer?
MCQ
Correct answer: Difficulty in construction
102
What is the minimum value of effective depth of a cantilever RCC beam of span 7 m to satisfy the vertical deflection limit as per IS 456-2000?
MCQ
Correct answer: 1000 mm
103
Match the following.
MCQ
Correct answer: I-A, II-B, III-C
104
A 3-degrees curve is situated on a ruling gradient of 1 in 250 on a broad Gauge track. What should be the actual ruling gradient considering the grade compensation of curvature?
MCQ
Correct answer: 0.28%
105
If a pitot tube is placed with its nose facing downstream, the liquid:
MCQ
Correct answer: falls in the tube to a height of 2 g
106
____________ is the best suited method of irrigation for arid conditions in hot and windy areas so as to achieve optimum usage of irrigation water.
MCQ
Correct answer: Drip irrigation method
107
If a cantilever retaining wall is to retain soil to its full height H, for the analysis of bending moment at its base, the distance from the base where the total force due to backfill acts, is _____.
MCQ
Correct answer: 0.33 H
108
A map of a certain area is drawn on a sheet. The distance on the map is 1 dm and that on the ground is 5 km. The representative fraction for the given data is _____________. (Note that ‘dm’ means decimetre.)
MCQ
Correct answer: 50000
109
For zenith angles greater than $90^\circ$, the telescope of the total station will be _________.
MCQ
Correct answer: pointing downwards
110
Municipal solid waste is also known as:
MCQ
Correct answer: refuse
111
Consider the following statements in a situation where cement and steel are supplied by the department. I: 10% profit should be added on the cost of cement and steel. II: Cost of carriage from godown to site work should be added. Which of the following options is true?
MCQ
Correct answer: Only statement II is true
112
The number of vibrations of a sound wave per unit time is measured in ______.
MCQ
Correct answer: hertz
113
Which of the following types of trees belong to the endogenous trees?
MCQ
Correct answer: Bamboo
114
As per IS 3495 part-3 (1992), soluble salts, if present in bricks, will cause efflorescence on the surface of bricks. If the white deposits cover about 10% of the surface, the efflorescence is said to be ________.
MCQ
Correct answer: slight
115
In a compaction test, the dry unit weight stops increasing after optimum moisture content because:
MCQ
Correct answer: water particles start occupying space of soil grains
116
As per the Dicken’s formula Qp = C.M3/4 for the calculation of peak drainage discharge, the term ‘M’ represents:
MCQ
Correct answer: catchment area in sq. km.
117
Which of the following keeps a record of receipts, issues and running balance of certain items of stock, especially of fitting items?
MCQ
Correct answer: Bin card
118
In traffic control, the conflict points are reduced to bare minimum and the delays are minimised by designing:
MCQ
Correct answer: road intersection
119
The total amount of dissolved salts allowable concentrations in mixing water in order to obtain a good strength concrete in terms of parts per million (ppm) as per IS 456 is ______.
MCQ
Correct answer: 15000 ppm
120
Select the option that is appropriate regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion and Reason. Assertion: The orographic type of precipitation that is caused by moving masses of moist air may get lifted up to higher altitudes, due to presence of mountains as barriers. Reason: Moving masses of moist air are lifted up to higher altitudes due to presence of mountains as barriers and consequently, they undergo cooling, condensation and precipitation.
MCQ
Correct answer: Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
121
The type of timber recommended for constructional purpose, whose modulus of elasticity in bending is above 12.5 kN/mm2, is classified as ________ timber.
MCQ
Correct answer: Group A
122
Which method involves driving piles along both sides of an existing wall and inserting a needle in the form of pile caps through the existing one?
MCQ
Correct answer: Pile method
123
Which of the following is an acoustical property of the construction material?
MCQ
Correct answer: Transmission
124
The total area enclosed by an irrigation canal that can be included in an irrigation project for supplying water to agricultural land by a network of canals is known as _________.
MCQ
Correct answer: gross command area
125
The coefficient of passive pressure Kp is __________ if the coefficient of active pressure Ka is $\frac{1}{4}$.
MCQ
Correct answer: [Diagram / Option 2]
126
With increase in the input power of pump, the efficiency of pump _________.
MCQ
Correct answer: decreases
127
A proper compaction of freshly prepared concrete results in: (i) Achieving maximum strength of concrete (ii) Expelling entrapped air in concrete (iii) Change in fineness modulus of aggregate
MCQ
Correct answer: Both (i) and (ii)
128
Select the correct statement related to water distribution pipe systems.
MCQ
Correct answer: Drain valves are provided at all the low points.
129
Read the given statements about crop water requirement and select the correct option. Statement 1: Duty will be less for a crop requiring more water. Statement 2: The water lost due to percolation will be more and hence the duty will be more.
MCQ
Correct answer: Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false
130
A reinforced concrete retaining structure that provides skeletal support to earthen materials is called ________.
MCQ
Correct answer: backfill
131
The standard consistency test of cement is conducted by using ________.
MCQ
Correct answer: Vicat’s apparatus
132
In a shrinkage limit experiment, mercury is used for:
MCQ
Correct answer: determine dry volume of soil
133
If the magnetic bearing of the Sun at a certain place in the Southern Hemisphere during noon is $336^\circ$ 29’, then the magnetic declination at that place is __________.
MCQ
Correct answer: $23^\circ$ 31’ E
134
Which of the following is NOT a structural stability criterion of a gravity dam?
MCQ
Correct answer: Overspill
135
A cantilever beam is subjected to two point loads as shown in the given diagram. Find the shear force and bending moment acting at the support of the beam. 20 kN 30 kN 1 m
MCQ
Correct answer: SF = 50000 N, BM = 80 kN-m
136
During rainy season, if the rainfall is sufficient during the crop period, less quantity of irrigation water shall be required and therefore, the duty of the irrigation canal will be _______________.
MCQ
Correct answer: more
137
Which of the following is obtained by rotating a log of wood against a sharp knife of rotary cutter?
MCQ
Correct answer: Veneers
138
Which of the following is NOT the requirement of an ideal permanent way?
MCQ
Correct answer: It should always be straight.
139
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of the manometer?
MCQ
Correct answer: Small operating range
140
The relative error in a closed traverse survey with perimeter of 500 m is 1 in 2000. If the closing error lies in the fourth quadrant (Positive - Y and Negative - X), then the errors in latitude and departure, closer to two decimal point, will be ________, respectively.
MCQ
Correct answer: 0.2 m and - 0.15 m
141
Warning signs are also known as __________.
MCQ
Correct answer: cautionary signs
142
As per IS 11624-1986, what will be the water quality rating of irrigation water when electrical conductivity (EC) is in the range of 1500 to 3000 (micromhos/cm)?
MCQ
Correct answer: Medium
143
According to IS 456:2000, The value of design bond stress in limit state method for plain bars in tension depends on the:
MCQ
Correct answer: grade of the concrete
144
Which of the following is the most important property of the section in a compression member of any steel structure?
MCQ
Correct answer: Moment of inertia
145
In measurement of masonry activity, no deduction is made for ______.
MCQ
Correct answer: the end of purlin up to 0.05 m2
146
Which of the following is NOT employed in the secondary treatment of sewage?
MCQ
Correct answer: Skimming tanks
147
Under which of the following conditions will a steel column fail in buckling?
MCQ
Correct answer: greater than 180
148
The Froude number is the ratio of two forces, which are:
MCQ
Correct answer: inertia force and gravity force
149
According to IS 456:2000, for limit state method of collapse in flexure, which of the following assumptions is correct?
MCQ
Correct answer: The maximum strain in concrete at the outermost compression fibre is taken as 0.0035 in bending.
150
The constant head permeability test is used for _______.
MCQ
Correct answer: coarse grained soil
151
The following is the table containing data recorded during curve setting by using the two- theodolite method. The values of A, B and C are ____, ____ and ____, respectively.
MCQ
Correct answer: A = $0^\circ$ 21’ 25”; B = $1^\circ$ 33’ 30”; C = $357^\circ$ 14’ 25”
152
The moment of inertia of a body is a measurement of:
MCQ
Correct answer: its resistance against rotation
153
The shear strength of an RCC beam depends on which of the following factors?
MCQ
Correct answer: The grade of the concrete
154
The bearing of the magnetic meridian of a line is S $32^\circ$ 10’ W. If the magnetic declination is $7^\circ$ 40’ East, then the true bearing is _______________.
MCQ
Correct answer: S $39^\circ$ 50’ W
155
Consider the following methods used to establish a point in the field. (Refer to the figure below Method 1:Point O is plotted by measuring only the distances MO and NO. Method 2: Point O is plotted by measuring only the angles NMO and MINO. Which of these methods also represents the principle of trigonometrical levelling?
MCQ
Correct answer: Method 2 only
156
What is the meaning of ‘ISMB 200’ in the steel design?
MCQ
Correct answer: Indian standard medium weight beams of depth 200 mm
157
______ is a method of measuring the undrained shear strength of a cohesive soil.
MCQ
Correct answer: vane shear test
158
Calculate the most economic area of a rectangular channel section with width ‘B’ and depth ‘y’.
MCQ
Correct answer: 2y2
159
Which of the following is a type of contouring method that can be effectively used in a hilly terrain by setting radial lines?
MCQ
Correct answer: Tacheometric method
160
The repair works that are usually carried out every fourth year are known as _________.
MCQ
Correct answer: quadrennial repair works
161
A cantilever beam is loaded as per the given diagram. Find the bending moment acting at the mid span of beam.
MCQ
Correct answer: 30 kN-m
162
The specific energy of flow is the energy per unit weight of water with respect to the channel bottom as datum. As level of the channel bottom goes down, ____________.
MCQ
Correct answer: specific energy increases
163
To get the corresponding lengths, we must ______one breadth to the long wall and ______ one breadth from the short wall from the centre line.
MCQ
Correct answer: add; subtract
164
If the section factor and the hydraulic depth for a rectangular channel are 40 m and 4 m, respectively, then calculate the top width of the channel.
MCQ
Correct answer: 5 m
165
Which of the given options is the best suited condition for energy recovery from municipal solid waste?
MCQ
Correct answer: High calorific value of solid waste
166
Thermal expansion gives temperature stresses that are resisted by the weight of the rails. If the resistance provided per km of rail length is 7 oo kg, then find the maximum length of the continuous welded track that can be provided neglecting all other factors Given for the rail: Area of cross section 50 cm Modulus of elasticity 2 106 kg cm Coefficient of thermal expansion=1.2×10-5/C Rise in temperature 35 C
MCQ
Correct answer: 60 km
167
Following are the observations made on a closed traverse Line Fore Back Bearing Bearing PQ $35^\circ$20' $216^\circ$40 QR $155^\circ$30 $336^\circ$30 RS 2930 1130 SP $10^\circ$$50^\circ$ $191^\circ$10 If the bearing of Line RS is not affected by local attraction the correction that needs to be applied to each angle is
MCQ
Correct answer: − $0^\circ$ 40’
168
Which of the following methods explains the process of underwater concreting? (i) Pumping technique (ii) Hydro valve method (iii) Toggle bags method (iv) Bagged concrete method
MCQ
Correct answer: (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)
169
Select the correct option for the given statements. Statement 1: In level crossing, the canal water and drain water are allowed to intermingle with each other. Statement 2: A level crossing is generally provided when a large canal and huge drainage approaches each other practically at the same level.
MCQ
Correct answer: Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true, and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1
170
The precipitation is collected and measured in a rain gauge. The non-recording type rain gauge extensively used in India is ___________________.
MCQ
Correct answer: Symon’s rain gauge
171
Calculate the hook length of the bar in one side with a diameter of 16 mm.
MCQ
Correct answer: 144 mm
172
Surfaces painted by _______________ shine like radium dials after the source of light has been cut off.
MCQ
Correct answer: enamel paint
173
In the centesimal system of angular measurement, 1 Circumference = ___________
MCQ
Correct answer: 400 grads
174
With reference to compression members of steel structures, the slenderness ratio of compression is defined as the _______.
MCQ
Correct answer: ratio of the effective length of the member to the appropriate radius of gyration
175
The distance between two points measured during a hot summer by using a 30 m long chain was 2.4 km. At the end of the day’s work, it was found that the chain was 2 decimetre longer. Which of the following is the correct option?
MCQ
Correct answer: The measured distance is 1600 cm less than the actual distance.
176
A fine grained soil has liquid limit of 55 and plastic limit of 20 as per plasticity chart. According to IS classification, the soil is represented by which of the following letter symbols?
MCQ
Correct answer: CH
177
The length of the first sub chord is 10 m and the radius of the curve is 200 m. Find the first tangential angle for setting out a circular curve.
MCQ
Correct answer: 85.95 ‘
178
The A-line in the unified classification system table is used to determine the plasticity index (IP) of soil sample on its liquid limit (WL). The equation for the A-line is given as ______.
MCQ
Correct answer: IP = 0.73 (WL - 20)
179
To study the wind pressure effect on a hollow circular chimney, the projected area calculation is given as:
MCQ
Correct answer: (Height of chimney) (External diameter of chimney shaft)
180
According to IS 800:2007, steel purlins are primarily designed as ______
MCQ
Correct answer: flexural members
181
During the particle board construction by pressing in the parallel plates process, what is the orientation of wood particles with respect to the plane of the board?
MCQ
Correct answer: [Diagram / Option 1]
182
Which of the following is NOT a field of application of sulphate-resisting cement?
MCQ
Correct answer: Dams
183
Consider the following conditions: 1. Concentrated loads are placed near beam supports. 2. The depth of beam section is small, and the beam is loaded uniformly. The design of a beam is governed by shear under which of the following conditions?
MCQ
Correct answer: Both 1 and 2
184
Following are the observations made on a closed traverse. Line Fore Bearing Back Bearing AB $10^\circ$20” $190^\circ$20 BC $155^\circ$30 $336^\circ$30" CA $290^\circ$ $112^\circ$ The total error is
MCQ
Correct answer: + $3^\circ$ 0’
185
A pump has to pump water through a pipeline of height of 10 m above the ground at a rate of 0.2 m3/sec. The water in a sump tank is 5 m below the ground level. Neglect head loss due to friction, the pumping power required would be ____________ (Consider g = 10 m/s2).
MCQ
Correct answer: 30 KW
186
Which of the following statements is correct with respect to compaction and consolidation?
MCQ
Correct answer: Both compaction and consolidation improve the engineering properties of soil.
187
A capillary tube of diameter 4 mm is dipped into a liquid of specific gravity 0.6. The liquid rises in the tube by 20 mm, making an angle of contact of $0^\circ$ with the tube. Determine the surface tension of the liquid in contact with air and the glass tube.
MCQ
Correct answer: 0.12 N/m
188
Which of the following types of pumps should be selected in order to pump the sewage from a septic tank to the water treatment system?
MCQ
Correct answer: Submersible pump
189
Select the correct option for the given statements related to the field test of cement. Statement 1: When you insert your hand in a bag of cement, it should give you a hot feeling. Statement 2: In adulteration test, take a pinch of cement and feel (rub) between the fingers; it should give a smooth feeling and not a gritty feeling.
MCQ
Correct answer: Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true
190
Superplasticisers are also called ________.
MCQ
Correct answer: high-range water reducers
191
To increase the seepage flow length, ____________ are provided on the cut-off walls of the barrage or weir.
MCQ
Correct answer: sheet piles
192
As per IRC, when designing pedestrian and traffic signals using approximate method for a two-phase system, the minimum initial period with pedestrian signal should NOT be less than:
MCQ
Correct answer: 7 seconds
193
Which of the following includes the cost of hire charges for the vehicle for an 8-hour working period in a day with the cost of the driver?
MCQ
Correct answer: Cost of owing
194
What is the standard atmospheric pressure at sea level?
MCQ
Correct answer: 013 bar
195
Find the moment of resistance of a balanced singly reinforced beam using the following data. Grade of concrete : M20 Grade of steel : Fe415 b = width of the beam d = effective depth of the beam Use limit state method of design:
MCQ
Correct answer: 76bd2
196
Pavements which have low or negligible flexural strength are called ____________.
MCQ
Correct answer: flexible pavements
197
The scrap value of a building is considered _____ of the cost of construction.
MCQ
Correct answer: 10%
198
Select the option that is appropriate regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion and Reason. Assertion: Check dams of low height are constructed across the tributaries of rivers at different stages to arrest the sediments in the catchment area. Reason: Check dams serve the purpose of detention reservoirs and keep all the sediments in suspension.
MCQ
Correct answer: Assertion is true but Reason is false.
199
Which of the following statements with respect to characteristics of solid waste is correct?
MCQ
Correct answer: The refuse of a typical Indian city has more garbage percentage (by weight) than that of a city in the USA.
200
Select the correct option for the given statements. Statement 1: Bamboo can be utilised as a building material for scaffolding, bridges, houses and buildings. Statement 2: Bamboo, like wood, is a natural composite material with a low strength-to- weight ratio and cannot be useful for structures.
MCQ
Correct answer: Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false