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SSC GD Previous Year Paper 2025

SSC GD Previous Year Paper 2025 with official questions, answers, and practice mock test.
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Section 1

General Intelligence and Reasoning

18 questions Section Test
1

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? EHO HJP KLQ ? QPS

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2

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 208 190 163 127 82 ?

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3

In a certain code language, ‘JAMB’ is coded as ‘5139’ and ‘BALM’ is coded as ‘9521’. What is the code for ‘L’ in the given code language?

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4

In a certain code language. 'X @ C' means 'X is the daughter of C', 'X $ C' means 'X is the husband of C', 'X = C' means 'X is the mother of C' and 'X * C' means 'X is the father of C'. Based on the above, how is J related to N if 'N @ E $ J @ S'?

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5

The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper is cut is shown in the following figures. How would this paper look when unfolded?

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6

Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series will make the series logically complete. _HKM O_NP RN_S UQT_ XTW_

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7

Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? ​ (Note: The odd man out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)

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8

The position(s) of how many letters will remain unchanged if each letter in the word GRACEFUL is arranged in the English alphabetical order?

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9

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All gabions are walls. All concretes are walls. All bridges are walls. Conclusions: (I) Some bridges are gabions. (II) Some concretes are bridges.

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10

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

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11

Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

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12

Based on some logic, ‘CLONE’ is written as ‘BLUKU’ and ‘BOUND’ is written as ‘AOAKT’. Following the same logic, ‘NICHE’ can be written as:

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13

SBCF is related to RADG in a certain way. In the same way, NVMO is related to MUNP. To which of the following is GUAX related, following the same logic?

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14

Seven people L, M, N, O, P, Q and R are sitting in a straight line facing the north (but not necessarily in the same order). M is sitting to the immediate left of P. O is sitting to the immediate left of Q. R is sitting to the immediate right of P and the immediate left of L. N is sitting to the immediate right of L and the immediate left of O. Who is sitting second to the left of N?

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15

Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship among the following classes. Female, Cardiologist, Engineer

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16

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 4 6 10 18 34 ?

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17

A dice has its faces marked by letters E, R, A, L, O and T. Two positions of the same dice are shown in the given figures. Which face is opposite to face E?

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18

In a certain code language, 'BSGN' is coded as '5-22-10-17' and 'TAUE' is coded as '23-4- 24-8'. How is 'PJDQ' coded in the given language?

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Section 2

General Awareness

21 questions Section Test
19

Eight people are sitting in two parallel rows containing 4 people each in such a way that there is equal distance between adjacent persons. In row 1, D, E, O and S are seated and all of them are facing south. In row 2, F, A, R and M are seated and all of them are facing north. Thus, each person faces another person from the other row. Only D sits to the left of E. Only R sits to the left of A. Only one person sits between A and F. Only one person sits between D and O. Which of the following represents both people facing each other?

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20

What will come in the place of the question mark ‘(?)’ in the following equation, if ‘÷’ and ‘×’ are interchanged and ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged? 50 − 9 ÷ 1 + 63 × 7 = ?

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21

What is the penalty amount specified under the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Bill, 2024, for individuals involved in unfair practices or offenses during exams?

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22

She was a Carnatic legendary singer who sang in Europe, North America and at the United Nations General Assembly. Who was she?

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23

The NBPW, which can be considered as the most widespread Iron Age pottery, stands for ____________________________________.

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24

In August 2024, who bid farewell to the Supreme Court, became the first woman Chief Justice of the High Court for the State of Telangana and was the ninth woman to be elevated to the Supreme Court of India?

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25

What was the major economic challenge addressed in the Third Five-Year Plan (1961- 1966)?

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26

Part III of the Constitution of India stated about which of the following?

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27

Which sector of the economy does the Green Revolution belong to?

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28

Lakshmi Vishwanathan, who won the prestigious Natya Kalanidhi Award from the Music Academy was famous for which dance form?

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29

When did Michael Faraday discover electromagnetic induction, the principle behind the electric transformer and generator?

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30

Which of the following sentences is/are true? i. The projected growth rate of the Indian agriculture sector for FY 2022-23 was 5.5%. ii. During the Financial Year 2021-22, agricultural exports of India reached to about US$ 50.2 billion. iii. During Kharif Marketing Season 2021- 22, 581.7 lakh metric tons of rice was procured in India.

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31

Pradhan Mantri Rojgar Protsahan Yojana is being implemented since _______.

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32

Who were the key figures behind the recommendations that formed the basis of the Government of India Act, 1919?

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33

The annual Mamallapuram Dance Festival, which includes performances of Indian Classical Dances Bharatanatyam, Kuchipudi, Kathak, Mohiniattam, Odissi and Kathakali, is organised in _____.

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34

Which are the two wettest places on Earth that receive more than 1,080 cm of rainfall in a year?

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35

As per National Multidimentional Poverty Index of India: A Progress Review 2023, which of the following union territories has the highest percentage of multidimensionally poor?

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36

2nd October 2022 marked the _____________birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi, celebrated as Gandhi Jayanti.

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37

Which of the following sports was included as a discipline in the 11th Asian Games Beijing 1990?

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38

Where were the first Asian Games held in India?

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39

Which of the following plants can be made to climb walls using special support?

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Section 3

Quantitative Aptitude

20 questions Section Test
40

Which Articles of the Constitution of India deals with the Union Public Service Commission?

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41

What is the third proportional to 16 and 48?

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42

If at same rate of interest, in 2 years, the simple interest is ₹42 and compound interest is ₹51, then what is the principal (in ₹)?

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43

Determine the largest four-digit number that is exactly divisible by 15, 25, 40, and 75.

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44

The average weight of Gopal, Akshay and Atul is 46 kg. If the average weight of Gopal and Akshay be 40 kg and that of Akshay and Atul be 45 kg, then the weight of Akshay (in kg) is:

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45

In an examination, there were three papers of Mathematics, two papers of English and one paper of Science. All papers were of 100 marks. S got 60% in Mathematics, 70% in English and 50% in Science. What was his percentage of marks in all papers?

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46

A can do a piece of work in 32 days and B in 48 days. They work together for 8 days and then A goes away. In how much time (in days) will B finish the 60% of the remaining work?

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47

The LCM of 28, 60, 120 and 135 is:

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48

A dishonest shopkeeper promises to sell his goods at cost price. However, he uses a weight that actually weighs 46% less than what is written on it. Find his profit percentage.

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49

Two numbers are in the ratio of 4 : 9. If the mean proportional between them is 24, find the positive difference between the two numbers.

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50

Two cones have their heights in the ratio 4 : 3 and the radii of their bases in the ratio 1 : 2. Find the ratio of their volumes.

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51

Mandar has two grandsons Ketan and Tushar. 11 year old Ketan gets some money from Mandar’s wealth and 12 year old Tushar gets rest of the money. But Ketan and Tushar will get money only when they turn 22 years old. Till then the money is in a bank getting interest at rate 8% compounded annually. When both turn 22, they receive the same amount. How much had Mandar given Tushar (in ₹) initially, if total money with Mandar was ₹24700?

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52

A man goes to Ahmedabad from Kolkata at a speed of 9km/hr and returns to Kolkata at speed of 18km/hr, through same route. What is his average speed (in km/hr) of the entire journey?

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53

A student was getting the following four offers on the purchase of a book: I - Two successive discounts of 20% and 20% II - Two successive discounts of 25% and 15% III - Two successive discounts of 30% and 10% IV - Two successive discounts of 5% and 35% Which scheme offers the most discount to the student?

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54

Find the value of

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55

Two trains having lengths of 210 m and 140 m are running at speeds of 80 km/h and 150 km/h, respectively, in the same direction. The time taken (in minutes) by the faster train, coming from behind, to completely cross the other train is:

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56

What is the cost price of an article which is sold for ₹1,566 with 8% profit?

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57

Vipul invests a sum of ₹5400 and Vijay invests a sum of ₹9400 at the same rate of simple interest per annum. If, at the end of 5 years, Vijay gets ₹840 more interest than Vipul, then find the rate of interest per annum (in percentage).

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58

The price (per litre) of petrol increases by 85%. By what percent should its consumption be reduced such that the expenditure on it increases by 48% only?

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59

A number is first decreased by 15% and then increased by 20%. The number so obtained is 78 more than the original number. The original number is:

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Section 4

English Comprehension

19 questions Section Test
60

The HCF of two numbers is 11 and their sum is 132. If both the numbers are greater than 42, then the difference between the two numbers is:

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61

Select the correct collocation to fill in the blank. The teacher gave the students ______ instructions before the exam.

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62

Select the option that rectifies the underlined spelling error. The students had to write an essay for their asignment.

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63

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. Arrogant

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64

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. Broad

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65

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. Flaunt

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66

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. The dog ran _____ the garden chasing the cat.

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67

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. Grey _____ is no sure sign of attaining wisdom.

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68

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. Man of straw

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69

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word in brackets to fill in the blank. The widespread ______________________(destruction) of the natural world threatens the food we eat, the water we drink and the air we breathe.

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70

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. It is a sin against God and humanity to ________ places of religious worship.

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71

Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. When it comes to cooking, she can really think creatively and unconventionally to create unique dishes that surprise everyone.

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72

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. (A) He spoke passionately about his favourite book, / (B) articulating his thoughts clear / (C) and engaging everyone in a lively discussion / (D) about its themes.

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73

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. We will complete the project _________ without external help.

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74

Identify the sentence with the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

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75

The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer. Alka had been writing / to her boss until she realises / that he was not interested in resolving her issues.

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76

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no 1.

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77

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no 2.

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78

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no 3.

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Section 5

General Hindi

22 questions Section Test
79

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no 4.

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80

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no 5.

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81

यह वस्तु ग्रााह्य है। उपरोक्त वाक्य में ‘ग्रााह्य’ शब्द का विलोम चयन कीजिए।

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82

निम्नलिखित में से उस विकल्प का चयन करें, जिस में उचित मुहावरे का प्रयोग नहीं किया गया है -

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83

निम्नलिखित में से शुद्ध वाक्य का चयन कीजिए –

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84

निम्नलिखित में से विशेषण युक्त पद नहीं है।

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85

‘छ: महीने का समय’ उपरोक्त वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द होगा-

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86

निम्न वाक्य में किस पद पर त्रुटि है ? पहचानिए। मेले में विद्यार्थियों की कई टोलीयाँ थीं।

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87

’विष्णुु’ के लिए पर्यायवाची शब्द होगा-

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88

निम्नलिखित वाक्यांश हेतु सार्थक शब्द की पहचान करें। जिसकी उपमा नहीं दी जा सके

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89

रिक्त स्थाान की पूर्ति सार्थक- निरर्थक शब्द युग्म से करें- जीवन में हमेशा मनुष्य को… रास्ते से गुजरना पड़ता है।

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90

इनमें से किस वाक्य में त्रुटि नहीं है?

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91

‘अनन्याा स्नेेहा को पत्र लिख रही है |’ प्रेरणार्थक क्रि या का प्रयोग कर इस वाक्य को लिखिए -

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92

‘खिन्न’ का विलोम शब्द नीचे दिए विकल्पों में से चुनिए-

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93

मेरे परीक्षाा में अच्छेे अंक आए हैं। - वाक्य में प्रयुक्त रेखांकित एकार्थी शब्द के लिए उचित विकल्प है-

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94

निम्नलिखित में से बहुवचन से संबंधित वाक्य है-

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95

‘तोता उड़कर पेड़ की ________ ।' निम्नलिखित में से ‘देशज’ शब्द युक्त विकल्प चुनकर वाक्य पूर्ण करें।

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96

उपरोक्त गद्यांश के आधार पर निम्नलिखित रिक्त स्थाान की पूर्ति करें। उससे कुछ दूर एक उम्रदराज मगर तंदुरुस्त आदमी शहनाई जैसा ____ (1)- बैगपाइपर (bagpiper) बजा रहा था।

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97

उपरोक्त गद्यांश के आधार पर निम्नलिखित रिक्त स्थाान की पूर्ति करें। उसने काला लबादा गाउन पहन रखा ____(2)।

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98

उपरोक्त गद्यांश के आधार पर निम्नलिखित रिक्त स्थाान की पूर्ति करें। वह खड़ाा होकर वाद्य _____ (3) रहा था।

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99

उपरोक्त गद्यांश के आधार पर निम्न चिन्हि त शब्द का विपरीत शब्द पहचानें। लोग उसके सामने से अदब (4) से गुजर रहे थे।

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100

उपलब्ध विकल्पों में से कौनसा विकल्प निम्नलिखित वाक्य के चिन्हि त शब्द का पर्यायवाची शब्द नहीं है? पास में पेन्स (सिक्केे) (5) न होने का अफसोस हुआ।

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