SSC CGL Exam 2021 Tier-II Official Paper (Held On: 08 Aug, 2022 Shift 1)

SSC CGL Exam 2021 Tier-II Official Paper (Held On: 08 Aug, 2022 Shift 1) with official questions, answers, and practice mock test.

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Section 1

General Awareness

25 questions Section Test

The pie chart given below shows the number of tyres of 6 companies. Number of tyres of a particular company are shown as a percentage of total number of tyres of these 6 companies. 12% 28% 10% 20% 20% 10% What is the sum of central angles formed by the sectors representing tyres of company F and A?

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The bar chart given below shows the number of boys and girls in 5 schools. 1800 1800 1600 1400 1200 1000 800 500 400 400 $1 S 2 S 4 S 3 S 5 schools Boys Girls If the number of boys in school S 6 are 3 o percent more than the number of girls in school S 1, then number of girls in schools S 3 and S 4 is what percentage of number of boys in schools S 6 and S 1?(correct to two decimal places)

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Which of the following g is equal to s secA- cosA?

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Ratio of monthly in comes of A and B is 4: 5 respectively. Ratio of monthly savings of A and B is 14: 19 respectively. If the monthly expenditure of A and B is 12 o 0 each, then what is the difference between the monthly in comes of A and

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3, then what is the value of x If x += +x-6,

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What is the simplified value of (x+y+z)(xy+yz+zx)- xyz x y (y+2)(z+x)

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COS 6 Which of the following is equal to sine Istn e

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and ab = 5, then If a b +b 3?

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The bar chart given below shows the discount percentage offered by a shopkeeper on seven articles. Selling price of these seven articles: A 1, A 2, A 3, A 4, A 5, A 6 and A 7 is Rs. 420, 600, 816, 825, 425, 800 and 840. 45 30 32 25 20 15 A 1 A 2 A 3 A 4 A 5 A 6 A 7 Articles Discount percent Selling price= Marked price 100 What is the sum of the marked price of these seven articles?

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What is the value of 3 sin? $30^\circ$ + =cos? $60^\circ$- 2 sec? $45^\circ$?

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29.16 0.2916 What is the value of /0.0036 V 1.1664 ￥116.64 V 0.36

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If the digits of a two digit number is reversed, then the number is decreased by 36. Which of the following is correct regarding the m umber I. The difference of the digits is 4. II. The value of number can be 84. III. Number is always a composite number.

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What is the value of 3 co sec 80 2 cos 5 o co sec 40 o sin $40^\circ$ sec 100

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If V 3 =3 sin 0. tan 0 then n what is the value of s in e - cos e

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The base of a prism is a right angle triangle whose sides are 9 cm, 12 cm and 15 cm. Volume of this S prism is 648 cm 3. What will be the height of prism?

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The cost of a diamond is directly proportional to the square of its weight The cost of a 14 s gm diamond is 2560. This diamond got broken down into two pieces in the ratio of 5: 9. How much loss percent is incurred due to this breakage? (Correct to two decimal places)

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shown in the terms of degrees with respect to the total number of males in all the 6 departments. Number of males in department S are 1080. $60^\circ$ $30^\circ$ 006 06 $36^\circ$ $54^\circ$ J = Total number of males in T and P K = Difference between the number of males in P and Q What is the value of J + K?

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What is the sum of all the common between terms the given series S 1 and S 2? S 1 =2, 9, 16, 632 S 2 = 7, 11, 15,.. 743

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Section 2

Quantitative Aptitude

50 questions Section Test

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(9/41), If sine $90^\circ$ then what is the value of cote?

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A, B and C started a business with initial investments of 20000,≠ 25000 and 10000, respectively. After 5 months from start, A invested more. After 6 months from start, C invested 3 4000 8000 more. After 4 months from start, B 8000. At the end of the year, they will I withdrew receive a profit of x'. In what ratio they will share the profits?

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Which fraction among the following is the least? $11^\circ$12 13

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13 11 15 What is the value of 99 66 + 66 + +..... +99 67 66 66 66 66

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What is the value of 5 sin?600 + 7 sin?450 + 8 cos $245^\circ$?

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V 7+45 V 14 +10 /10 What is the value of v 14-/10

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The ratio of milk to water in a 1 oo litres mixture is 2: 3. 10 litres of this mixture is withdrawn and replaced with milk. This process is repeated 2 more times. What is the percentage of milk in final mixture?

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If N lies and 7, where N is between integer then how SN s an many values can take?

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An article is sold at 25 percent loss. If its cost price is doubled and selling price is increased by 660, then there is a profit of 20 percent. What is the original cost price of the article?

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Average age of 7 students of a class is 28 3 years. Average age of first three students is 30 years. Age of fourth student is 4 than the age of fifth student. Ages of last two students is same and is 5 n less more v ears than the average age of first three students. What is the average age of fourth and fifth I student?

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Salaries of B, C, D and E are in the ratio of 2: 3: 4: 5 5 respectively Their salaries are increased by 20 percent, 30 percent, 40 percent and 50 percent respectively. If the increased salary of D is 560, then what is the sum of the original salaries of B, C, D and E?

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The slant height of a cone is 20 cm. If surface area of this cone? (use π元=22/7)

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A alone can do $\frac{2}{5}$ of a work in 12 days. B is 25 t more efficient than A. C alone can do the same percent e work in 12 days percent less efficient than C. If they all less than B. D is 25 work together, then the work will be completed in how many days?

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Which of the following given value is than greater V 12

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3 0 000008 V 0.0004 x 3 0 729 0 0016 If A= and B = 4 16000 125000 4 810 then what is A × B? V 0.16

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Which of the following is equal to tane tan e

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A, B and C started a business with the investment of 100000. 140000 and 200000 respectively. After 3 months, C left the business. 7 months after C left the business, B also left the business. B and C took their investments with them. At the end of the year, C received his share of profit as 1155. What is the total share of profits of A and B?

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Sum on simple interest at the rate of 10 percent and 20000 and 40000 given are 115 percent per respectively for three years. What will be the total simple interest?

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Which of the following is equal to tan 8 sec 8 1 tan e s ece 1

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What is the sum of first 20 terms s of the following series? 1 2 2 3 3 4 4 5

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The height of a solid cylinder is 35 5 cm. The circumference of its base is 37 cm more than the radius. What will be the volume of this cylinder?

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The following bar graph shows the amounts (in lakhs) invested by a company in purchasing raw materials and the values (in lakhs) of finished goods sold by the company, from 2012 to 2017. 700 Amount invested Sales of finished goods 009 600 525 525 Amounts (in lakhs) 500 1475 450 400 400 350 325 300 250 220 200 140 100 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016 2017 The difference between the average amount invested in purchasing raw materials during 2012 to 2017 and the average value of sales of finished goods during the same period 2012 to 2017 is:

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Vip ul and Man ish invested the sum of 20000 at the rate of 20 percent p.a 15000 and and 30 percent p.a. compounding ally). If time period is 3 years on compound interest respectively an nua for both, then what will be the total compound interest earned by Vip ul and Man ish

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Raju spends s 10 percent and 20 percent of his income on transport and food respectively. He spends 30 percent of the income on clothing He remaining saves rest of his income. If his saving is 26460, then what will be total expenditure on food and clothing together

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A alone can do a work in 14 days. B alone can 1 do the same work in 28 days. C alone can do the same work in 56 days. They start the work together and completed the work such that B was not working on last 2 days and A did not work in last 3 days. In how many days (total) Was the work completed?

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The base of a right prism is an e equilateral triangle whose side is 10 cm. If height of this prism is 10 v 3 cm, t then what is the total surface area of prism?

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A mixture of acid and water contains 20 percent acid. When 1 o litres of water is added to the mixture, then the 15 becomes percent. What is the original percentage of acid quantity of mixture?

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respectively If BA =4 cm, then what is the length of PQ?

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11 11 11 What is the value of - + 11 +.....+ 15 12 35 156 575

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of two The difference the concentric circles is 264 difference between between the square areas of their radius? (use 元 22

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Section 3

English Comprehension

425 questions Section Test

3 sin 5 g 0 What is the value of 3 sin 420 COS 320

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What is the solution of the following equations 2 x + 3 y = 12 a and 3 x - 2 y = 5

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31250 has to distributed A. sum of among A, B, C and D. Total share of B and D is equal to (14/11) of total share of A and C. Share of D is half of share of A. Share of C is 1.2 of share of A. What are the shares of A, B, C and D respectively?

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Volume of a cone whose radius of a base and height cone whose radius of base and height t are 2 r cm and h cm respectively?

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If x y +3 xy + 57

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Marked price of an article is 28000. It can be sold at one of the following ways: Way B: Two successive discounts of 16 percent and 10 percent. Which way will have lowest selling price and what will be the value of it?

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+y If xy integers), then what is the value of = 19 x and are

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If and then what is the value of A + B + A= 0.312, B = 0.415 C = 0.309 C?

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metres and it is moving at the speed of 72 km hr In how Length of a train is 330 much time will it takes cross a platform of length 710 metres?

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Two trains whose lengths are 450 metres are moving metres and 300 towards each other at the speed of 162 km hr and 108 km hr respectively. If distance between trains is 300 metres, t then in how much time, these trains will cross each other?

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The graph of the equation x = a (a≠ 0) is a

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The height of a cylinder is 45 cm. If circumference of its base is 132 cm. then what is the curved surface of this cylinder use π=22/7)

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numbers there from How many composite are 1 53 to 97?

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100

A alone can do a work in 11 days. B alone can do the same work in 22 days. C alone can do the same work in 33 days. They work in the following manner: Day l: A and B work. Day 2: B and C work. Day 3: C and A work. Day 4: A and B work. And so on. In how many days will the work be completed?

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101

Select the correct synonym of the word EXTORTIONATE

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102

How do tourists reach the base of the crater?

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103

The given passage is a ______ passage.

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104

Why is the bottom of the volcano called ‘nature’s art studio’?

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105

Select the correct antonym of the word. TRANQUILLITY

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106

Who came up with the idea of making the volcano accessible to tourists?

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107

What is the most appropriate title for the passage?

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108

The tone of the passage is:

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109

The volcano is referred to as the ‘sleeping giant’ in the passage because

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110

What feelings do visitors have when they visit the volcano?

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111

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank No. 1.

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112

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank No. 2.

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113

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank No. 3.

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114

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank No. 4.

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115

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank No. 5.

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116

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank No. 6.

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117

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank No. 7.

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118

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank No. 8.

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119

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank No. 9.

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120

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank No. 10.

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121

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank No. 1.

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122

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank No. 2.

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123

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank No. 3.

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124

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank No. 4.

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125

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank No. 5.

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126

Which statement is NOT true according to the passage?

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127

Why do Syrian refugees prefer to take shelter in Turkey? Select the main reason.

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128

‘Humanitarian disasters’ refer to all those given below except

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129

The greatest number of people who have been displaced internally in their home country are in

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130

The passage is mainly about

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131

Why is Savanna in Africa called the “Big Game Country”?

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132

The main theme of the passage is

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133

What kind of a passage is it?

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134

Match the words with their meanings. Words- a. luxuriant, b. dormant, c. prolonged Meanings- 1. continued, 2. lush, 3. sleeping

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135

What helps an elephant fight its enemies?

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136

Which of the following trees has water storing capacity in its broad trunk?

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137

Which species of vegetation is NOT found in Australian Savanna?

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138

Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word as it is used in the text. Palms which cannot withstand the drought are confined to the wettest areas or along rivers.

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139

Select the carnivorous animal from the following.

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140

What is the main feature of Savanna landscape?

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141

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.1

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142

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.2

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143

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.3

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144

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.4

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145

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.5

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146

After reading the above passage it can be inferred that it is

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147

What will be the consequence of high fertility?

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148

Which statement is NOT correct according to the passage?

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149

According to the UN report, fertility rate in 1950 stood at how many average births per woman?

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150

The passage presents the findings of a United Nations report which is mainly regarding

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151

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.1

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152

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.2

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153

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.3

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154

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.4

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155

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.5

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156

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.6

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157

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.7

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158

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.8

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159

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.9

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160

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.10

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161

Select the most appropriate passive form of the given sentence. The flood victims of Assam have to make highway their home every year.

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162

Select the most appropriate option to improve the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to improve it, select ‘no improvement required’. Learning a poem by heart is meaningless if you do not understand it.

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163

Given below are four sentences in jumbled order. Pick the option that gives their correct order. A. We have flower arrangements to suit everybody at all prices. B. We also make paying easy, and we accept all major credit cards at our shops or you can pay online. C. Whether it is birthdays, weddings, or even the sad times like funerals, Fancy Flowers is there to make it easy. D. Established in 2002, Fancy Flowers has branches all over the country.

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164

Select the most appropriate direct form of the given sentence. The policeman told the boys that they could not park their car there.

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165

Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select ‘No Improvement’. Keep the dog tied indoors; however, it may bite some stranger.

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166

Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. a large single detached house with single or double story

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167

Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select ‘No Improvement’. The apple tree was loaded of fruit.

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168

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. abandon

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169

Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select ‘No Improvement’. She is as good if not better than her sister.

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170

Select the most appropriate active form of the given sentence. Rani’s car is twelve years old but it has not been used much.

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171

Select the wrongly spelt word.

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172

Select the most appropriate option to improve the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to improve it, select ‘no improvement required’. The first step in making a kite is to fasten two sticks of bamboo together in the form of a cross.

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173

Select the most appropriate direct form of the given sentence. The driver asked a passerby if he could tell him the way to the market.

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174

Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. one who talks to oneself

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175

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech. Your sister will say that she has lost her pen again.

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176

Select the most appropriate indirect form of the given sentence. Jayesh said to Diwakar, “ You can top the class if you want to.”

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177

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. fight shy of

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178

Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct order forming a meaningful and coherent paragraph. A. He had agreed to feed him, pay him twelve rupees a month, and find him somewhere to stay. B. A month’s salary was paid in advance. C. Fotik had learned to handle his job quite well in the last five days. D. Upen Babu was a good man which had helped a lot.

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179

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice. Nothing can be achieved without hard work.

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180

Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct order forming a meaningful and coherent paragraph. A. And every time I stood under the shower, she shouted, “Don't waste water.” B. She had poisoned my mind with the lectures on social awareness, equal rights for the poor, India's socio-ecological problems. C. Every time I was about to take my first bite of a hot buttered Roti she reminded me of the starving millions in our country and in the whole wide world. D. It was Priyanka's fault - that stupid sister of mine- the social activist.

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181

Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. a book or set of books giving information on many subjects or on many aspects of one subject and typically arranged alphabetically.

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182

Given below are four sentences in jumbled order. Pick the option that gives their correct order. A. It was interesting to find out that the centre operates 24 hours a day all year round. B. The recent trip to the recycling centre was a very useful experience. C. However, it was surprising to learn that the centre only collects 50% of the waste as a lot of it is used as landfill. D. The main aim of the visit was to find out about the systems put in place to recycle waste.

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183

Identify the segment in the sentence which contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, select ‘No error’. These experiments had been going on since several months.

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184

Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct order forming a meaningful and coherent paragraph. A. He never jumped or ran to chase another dog. B. They looked very peaceful, the old man and his dog. C. Every day at a few minutes past 5 o'clock they passed by our house and went down the street to the park. D. The dog walked a few steps ahead of his master, slow and steady as if he were held on a leash.

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185

Select the most appropriate one word to substitute the given group of words. symbols of royalty

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186

Identify the segment in the sentence which contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, select ‘No error’. Every Saturday, your mother prepares a pudding, isn’t she?

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187

Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. The people living in coastal areas were evacuated by time.

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188

Select the most appropriate indirect form of the given sentence. “Oh, how could I ever thank you, Sir!” said the convict to the Bishop.

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189

Identify the segment in the sentence which contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, select ‘No error’. During the seventeenth century there were great developments at the sphere of knowledge.

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190

Identify the segment in the sentence which contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, select ‘No error’. The gentleman had a suitcase full with wigs, ornaments and dresses.

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191

Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select ‘No Improvement’. Keep him at arm’s length lest you may not repent in the long run.

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192

Select the most appropriate passive form of the given sentence. The king covered the hole with a huge stone.

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193

Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct order forming a meaningful and coherent paragraph. A. Miss Tredgold rapped on the door twice with her gloved knuckle. B. A few moments passed before the door opened to reveal a man in grey sweater and blue jeans. C. Florentyna stood by her side, silent for the first time since leaving school. D.At last they came to a halt outside a newly painted red door which displayed the number 118.

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194

Select the most appropriate passive form of the given sentence. Granny had given Uncle Ken a good lecture on how to be a responsible adult.

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195

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice. Has Rahul been declared fit to play the next match?

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196

Select the most appropriate one word to substitute the given group of words. a case for keeping a sword

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197

Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct order forming a meaningful and coherent paragraph. A. In 1943, sudden retrenchment from his office due to the war cost him his nine year old job. B. In 1934, Patol Babu gave up his factory job and came to Calcutta with his wife. C. Ever since, Patol Babu had struggled to make a living. D. The sailing was smooth for some years and Patol Babu was in his boss’s good books.

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198

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. bad blood

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199

Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select ‘No Improvement’. The scientists are busy to explore new ideas.

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200

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech. She said to herself, “Shall I have a happy married life?”

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201

Select the most appropriate active form of the given sentence. Not much damage to the life and property was caused by the cyclone in July this year at the Andhra coast.

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202

Identify the segment in the sentence which contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, select ‘No error’. You should tell these children to complete their projects himself.

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203

Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, select ‘No error’. Open your books at page tenth.

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204

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. bury the hatchet

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205

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice. The money shall have been withdrawn from the bank by tomorrow.

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206

Given below are four sentences in jumbled order. Pick the option that gives their correct order. A. Another advantage is that we can have an opportunity to learn to speak a new language fluently. B. The main advantage of living somewhere else is that you get the opportunity to experience new cultures. C. Of course, living away from home has its disadvantage too, such as being away from friends and family for long periods of time. D. Should we live in one place for all our life or experience living in different places?

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207

Select the most appropriate one word to substitute the given group of words. one who speaks for others

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208

Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct order forming a meaningful and coherent paragraph. A. Gopu was not allowed into the main temple shrine. B. But Gopu did not mind his work. C. Pandit Ji had given him a little room in the courtyard of the temple and this was the only place he could call his own. D. He would sit every evening outside the temple to look after the shoes and slippers of the devotees.

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209

Select the most appropriate passive form of the given sentence. Please do not pluck any flowers from the temple compound.

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210

Select the most appropriate option to improve the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to improve it, select ‘no improvement required’. Nobody was interested in the fish who Gopal had catch from the river.

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211

Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select ‘No Improvement’. I will have travelled all over Europe last year.

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212

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech. She said to me, “Don’t worry about me.”

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213

Identify the segment in the sentence which contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, select ‘No error’. If you are going downhill you can go much fast.

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214

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech. She said, “Ruhi slipped when she was trying to board the bus.”

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215

Given below are four sentences in jumbled order. Pick the option that gives their correct order. A. These fields in the countryside have often been treated with pesticides which are harmful to bees. B. There is a new buzz in towns and cities in Great Britain. C. Bee-keepers living in the towns have begun to outnumber those in the country because plants growing in towns can offer more exciting nectar than fields in the countryside. D. Bee-keeping, normally practised by people living in the country, has become a fashionable hobby for those who live and work in the cities.

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216

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech. She said to me, “Can you look after my baby for a short while?”

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217

Select the most appropriate direct form of the given sentence. Father told Avika to stop watching the TV and eat her food.

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218

Select the most appropriate indirect form of the given sentence. Rahul said to Mohit, “ I am taking my family to Kashmir for a vacation tomorrow.”

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219

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. clam up

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220

Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. A misunderstanding has crept between he and his sister.

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221

Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. person who moves from one place to another, with intentions of finding work and settling, permanently or temporarily, at a new location

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222

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech. The judge asked the prisoner if he had anything to say for himself.

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223

Select the most appropriate active form of the given sentence. Those who help themselves are helped by God.

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224

Select the most appropriate option to improve the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to improve it, select ‘no improvement required’. Mr. Fogg thought that it is possible to a man to go round the world in eighty days.

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225

Select the most appropriate indirect form of the given sentence. “Don’t be late tomorrow morning,” my mother said to me.

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226

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. CONGENIAL

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227

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice. She is going to serve tea in silver cups today.

MCQ

228

Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select ‘No Improvement’. He is interested neither in business or on the job.

MCQ

229

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech. He said, “Oh, how I would have loved to visit Kashmir this year.”

MCQ

230

Select the most appropriate option to improve the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to improve it, select ‘no improvement required’. You can have a comfortable journey only then you are getting your seats reserved in advance.

MCQ

231

Select the most appropriate direct form of the given sentence. Taru asked Kavya if she would help her in setting up her new dressing table.

MCQ

232

Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. If I was you, I would not lose temper in this situation.

MCQ

233

Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct order forming a meaningful and coherent paragraph. A. He went up to the king, bowed and presented a velvet case. B. The king invited the men to make their presentations. C.The court-room was packed with people. D. Krishna Kumar was the first to come forward.

MCQ

234

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech. I told you that I had bought a new book for you the day before.

MCQ

235

Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, select ‘No error’. Scarcely had he took the medicine when his headache was gone.

MCQ

236

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. IMPECCABLE

MCQ

237

Select the most appropriate option to improve the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to improve it, select ‘no improvement required’. Eighty girls sat there at four long tables, doing their homework by candlelight.

MCQ

238

Given below are four sentences in jumbled order. Pick the option that gives their correct order. A. An allergy is a reaction of the immune system to a substance which is normally harmless. B. These antibodies then attach themselves to cells, which contain histamine, which inflames the tissues. C. One-third of us are affected by an allergy at some point in our lives. D. The immune system in allergy sufferers makes antibodies against harmless substances because it believes them to be dangerous.

MCQ

239

Select the most appropriate active form of the given sentence. A bed time story was made by him for me every night.

MCQ

240

Select the most appropriate direct form of the given sentence. I asked the carpenter how long he would take to polish my furniture.

MCQ

241

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice. An enquiry is demanded by us.

MCQ

242

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. forty winks

MCQ

243

Select the most appropriate option to improve the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to improve it, select ‘no improvement required’. Saroj has been suffering with osteoporosis from when she was fifty years old.

MCQ

244

Given below are four sentences in jumbled order. Pick the option that gives their correct order. A. New research, however, has found that bilingual children speak their first fifty words and so on, at the same age as children who only speak one language. B. Until fairly recently, parents and teachers feared that introducing children to a second language when they were very young could delay their language skills. C. Furthermore, there is no evidence that children confuse the two languages. D. In addition, there were fears that bilingual children would become confused in their use of language.

MCQ

245

Select the most appropriate option to improve the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to improve it, select ‘no improvement required’. We have heard that some statues have stolen with this ancient temple.

MCQ

246

Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. Contented people seldom complaint against their fate.

MCQ

247

Select the wrongly spelt word.

MCQ

248

Identify the segment in the sentence which contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, select ‘No error’. At one time birds and animals lived peaceful together.

MCQ

249

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. INCUMBENT

MCQ

250

Select the most appropriate indirect form of the given sentence. I said to you, “You should believe her”.

MCQ

251

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word. The annual meeting of our club has been ______ till next month.

MCQ

252

Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. You must reach the airport on time either you will miss your flight.

MCQ

253

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. fictitious

MCQ

254

Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select ‘No Improvement’. I take pride to serve my country.

MCQ

255

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word. The boy ______ to take the money.

MCQ

256

Identify the segment in the sentence which contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, select ‘No error’. If you study hard, you surely got selected for the scholarship.

MCQ

257

Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct order forming a meaningful and coherent paragraph. A courtyard enclosed the little room where the deity was kept. B. Nayan stood at the entrance and looked in with amazement. C. The forest grew thicker as she walked and then Nayan caught her first glimpse of the temple. D. It was an ancient structure and the grey stone walls were covered with moss.

MCQ

258

Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. He said that he had forgot to lock the door before leaving.

MCQ

259

Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select ‘No Improvement’. The little boy did many mischiefs in school.

MCQ

260

Select the most appropriate one word to substitute the given group of words. one who is all powerful

MCQ

261

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech. The young man said to his father, “Pardon me, sir.”

MCQ

262

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech. The teacher asked me why I had reached the examination hall so late.

MCQ

263

Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct order forming a meaningful and coherent paragraph. A. I had reached the most exciting part of my Agatha Christie novel. B. He was presently gruelling the Duchess seated in the arm chair. C. Hercule Poirot had managed to get together all his suspects in one room and in his great style was cornering them into confession. D. She had become extremely nervous and was on the verge of a breakdown.

MCQ

264

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. indolent

MCQ

265

Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. a doctor who specializes in heart diseases

MCQ

266

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech. I said to you, “He cannot be trusted completely.”

MCQ

267

Identify the segment in the sentence which contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, select ‘No error’. It turned out to be the noisy park party anybody had ever attended.

MCQ

268

Select the most appropriate active form of the given sentence. How many members were informed about the meeting in time?

MCQ

269

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. hold your horses

MCQ

270

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech. My friend said, “Hello! What are you doing here?”

MCQ

271

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. all in all

MCQ

272

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice. Who could have made such a silly mistake?

MCQ

273

Given below are four sentences in jumbled order. Pick the option that gives their correct order. A. The last exam of the year was history, which had always been my worst subject. B. So, I decided to write the dates and names of the important events on the inside of my arm. C. This happened when I was about 14 years old. D. I was useless at remembering dates and people’s names

MCQ

274

Select the most appropriate one word to substitute the given group of words. one who lives on others

MCQ

275

Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select ‘No Improvement’. Many battles was fought on the soil of India.

MCQ

276

Select the most appropriate indirect form of the given sentence. “Remove all the stains carefully and clean the windows,” said the contractor to the worker.

MCQ

277

Identify the segment in the sentence which contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, select ‘No error’. This story is quite interesting, but I have read much interesting stories than this.

MCQ

278

Select the most appropriate passive form of the given sentence. Let your son manage your business after your retirement.

MCQ

279

Given below are four sentences in jumbled order. Pick the option that gives their correct order. A. Thus, Daphne cannot resist the opportunity to scold them about their behaviour. B. The children have been annoying each other just before the meal starts. C. Daphne's family mealtimes are usually tense because this is a time when conflicts in the family surface. D. Also, they are rude about the food she has cooked, and Daphne gets upset by this.

MCQ

280

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice. Nobody has brought this fact to my notice.

MCQ

281

Given below are four sentences in jumbled order. Pick the option that gives their correct order. A. It is celebrated on November 5th usually. B. A man called Guy Fawkes tried to blow up the King with gunpowder over 400 years ago. C. A couple of days after you arrive we'll have Bonfire Night. D. It's only held in England as it marks a moment in our history.

MCQ

282

Select the most appropriate indirect form of the given sentence. He said to his brother, “Where did you go for a picnic?”

MCQ

283

Select the most appropriate option to improve the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to improve it, select ‘no improvement required’. Turn left outside the library door and walk down the corridor then you came to the main staircase.

MCQ

284

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. lend an ear

MCQ

285

Given below are four sentences in jumbled order. Pick the option that gives their correct order. A. I kept quiet about it though because I didn't want to sound grumpy. B. We were helping at a nature reserve for a week. C.I was getting a bit fed up because we had cheese sandwiches for every meal as the cooking team knew no better. D. When it was my team’s turn to cook, we made a simple dinner of pasta and salad which was devoured in no time.

MCQ

286

Select the most appropriate option to improve the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to improve it, select ‘no improvement required’. His tone was neither of anger nor sorrow.

MCQ

287

Select the misspelt word.

MCQ

288

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech. You told me that you had not slept the previous night and could not work then.

MCQ

289

Select the most appropriate indirect form of the given sentence. Granny said to Nina, “I don’t know why you think it is so wonderful.”

MCQ

290

Select the most appropriate option to improve the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to improve it, select ‘no improvement required’. None of the girl deserve to be selected for this award.

MCQ

291

Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select ‘No Improvement’. I reached at London only this morning.

MCQ

292

Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct order forming a meaningful and coherent paragraph. A.He tried covering himself from head to foot with a sheet, but that was suffocating, so he gave up. B. To his relief, Upen Babu found him a mosquito net. C. The next morning he told Upen Babu about his problem. D. Mosquitoes did not let him sleep the first night.

MCQ

293

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech. “What a hopeless fellow you are!” said the teacher to the student.

MCQ

294

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice. I am not interested in this assignment.

MCQ

295

Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. an animal or person that eats a variety of food of both plant and animal origin.

MCQ

296

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice. India is exporting handicrafts to several countries.

MCQ

297

Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, select ‘No error’. The most talented of these three boys are my friend’s son.

MCQ

298

Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. As soon the gun shot was heard, people ran out in panic.

MCQ

299

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. cut a sorry figure

MCQ

300

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice. He likes people to flatter him.

MCQ

301

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MCQ

302

Consider the following statements in the context of the nature of financial accounting. How many statements are correct? i) It records only economic events. i) It records information as per some specified rules. 11 It records business transactions only on cash basis.

MCQ

303

Which of the following is are INCORRECT match es of the account maintained in the context of self-balancing ledgers? Bought ledger adjustment account - Total creditors account Sales ledger adjustment account - Total debtors account

MCQ

304

Which of the given statement s is are correct in the context of manufacturing account i AM anu fac turing Account is prepared for finding out the cost of goods produced (also called Cost of Production) i Sale of scrap and the closing work-in-progress are shown on the credit side of the Manufacturing Account

MCQ

305

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MCQ

306

accounting Which conventions are related to the following actions? i) Closing stock is valued at lower of the cost or realizable value. ii) s Some stationary items purchased in a year and used for a number of years are treated as an expense and not as an asset.

MCQ

307

Which of the following statement is TRUE in the context of type of errors made while recording a business transaction? i A sale of Rs.5 oo made to Kamal has been posted on the debit side Of Kishore's Account isanexampleofone-sided ii A payment of Rs l ooo towards interest was posted twice to Interest Account is an example of one-sided error.

MCQ

308

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MCQ

309

In amended cash book, which of the following will be recorded?

MCQ

310

Generally, non-profit organisations prepare which of the following? Receipt and Payment Account ii) Income and Expenditure Account Balance Sheet

MCQ

311

Which of the following is are example s of a two-sided error while recording a business transaction? (i) 1 oo received from Desh muk h 1 was posted to his account as 1 o. (ii) The Purchases Book is overcast by 1,oo 0. ii A credit sale of 1,o 80 to An and was wrongly recorded in the Sales Book for 1,800.

MCQ

312

Which of the following statements is are INCORRECT in the context of the Bank Reconciliation Statement? When balance as per the Pass Book is the starting point, direct deposits by customers are added. When balance as per the Pass Book is the starting point, uncollected cheques are added. iii When balance as per the Cash Book is the starting point, un presented cheques are added.

MCQ

313

Which of the following is are the attribute s of accounting information i It should help in making inter firm comparisons but not necessarily inter period comparisons ii It should show an accurate and fairview of the profitability of the firm ii The financial statements should be accompanied by all the source documents while reporting to the stakeholders.

MCQ

314

Which of the following can bean arrangement in case of accommodation bill? i A bill is drawn for accommodation of the drawer only ii A bill is drawn and the proceeds are shared by drawer and draw ee

MCQ

315

Atrial balance shows i Credit balances i Debit balances

MCQ

316

Which of the following are accounting limitations? Accounting system records only historical events. Accounting ignores the effect of inflation on the value of fixed assets. iii Accounting information does not include the costs of pollution and employee accidental injuries.

MCQ

317

Which of the following statements is are correct in the context of the Trading Account? Trading Account is prepared for ascertaining the net profit. (ii) Cost of goods purchased includes all expenses s incurred till goods are brought to the place of business.

MCQ

318

As 2 excludes certain costs and recognize them as expenses in the period in which they are incurred, while valuing inventories Which of the following are such costs i abnormal amounts of wasted materials ii storage costs unless those costs are necessary in the production process prior to a further production stage; ili administrative overheads that do not contribute to bringing the inventories to their present location and condition

MCQ

319

Which option shows the correct accounting treatment given in the nonprofit organization accounting? i Small donations revenue receipts ii Subscriptions revenue receipts

MCQ

320

Which of the following options DON oT relate to examples of revenue expenditure a Repair expenses b Insurance expense Installation expenses

MCQ

321

Which of the following is not considered as inventory under As 2?

MCQ

322

Consider the given statements and select the correct option in the context of the cost concept. Assertion (A): The cost concept is applicable only to fixed assets and not to current assets. Reason (R): If a firm does not pay anything for a fixed asset, it would not be recorded in the books of accounts.

MCQ

323

Under the single-entry system, when rent is paid. it will be recorded in the Cash Book (ii) entry will be made in the Rent account Which of the above statements is are true?

MCQ

324

Which of the following is INCORRECT in the context of bills of exchange?

MCQ

325

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MCQ

326

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MCQ

327

Which of the following is the correct match of the types of accounts and the rules? For personal accounts (i) Debit the receiver and credit the giver (i) b) For real accounts Debit all expenses and credit all losses (ii) For nominal accounts Debit what comes in and credit what f goes out

MCQ

328

A machine is purchased for Rs 7,00,o 00.Expenses incurred on its cart age and installation Rs 3,00,o 00.Calculate the amount of depreciation@20%p.a.accordingto Straight Line Method for the first year ending on 3 lst March, 2022, if this machine is purchased on l st July 2021

MCQ

329

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MCQ

330

Which of the following is are an example s of fictitious assets? i Debit balance of Profit and Loss account ii Goodwill

MCQ

331

In the context of single entry system which of the given statement s is are correct i It is known as partial and incomplete recording of transactions ii This system is generally adopted by small traders petty shop keepers doctors advocates and other professionals iii The limited companies cannot adopt it because they have to maintain complete records of all transactions.

MCQ

332

convention is an exception of the full disclosure concept.

MCQ

333

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MCQ

334

Which of the given statements is are correct in the context of account balances of the Ledger? A debit balance of a personal account means that the party owes that amount to the business. All real accounts show a debit balance. iii Nominal accounts are not usually balanced, but closed by transfer to the Profit and Loss Account, at the time of preparing the final accounts.

MCQ

335

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MCQ

336

The Sports Club of Orissa had received in 2022-2023, 32,000 towards subscription. Subscriptions for 2021-22 unpaid 200. Subscriptions paid in advance on 31 March 2022 on 1 April 2022 W were ere 50 and the same on 31 March 2023 were 40. Subscriptions for 2022-2023 3 unpaid on 31 March 2023 wW were 39 o. How will this be reflected in the books of accounts of a non-profit organisation?

MCQ

337

A machine is purchased for 7,00,000. Expenses incurred on its cart age and installation are 3,00,o 00. Depreciation is charged @ 20% p.a. according to the Straight Line Method for the first year ending on 31 March 2022. Calculate the difference in the amount of depreciation for the 1 st year.1 if this machine was purchased on 1 April 2021 and if the machine was purchased on 1 July 2021.

MCQ

338

Krishna Ltd. purchased raw material 'R'. The cost price is 1,ooo. The other information is as follows: Freight: 50 Unloading charges: 20 Trade discount: 1 5 Determine the cost of purchase for inventory valuation.

MCQ

339

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MCQ

340

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MCQ

341

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MCQ

342

Which of the following is true as per the law of supply? l There is a negative relation between quantity supplied and price (2)There is a positive relationship between quantity supplied and factors of production

MCQ

343

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MCQ

344

People who never move above the poverty line are referred as

MCQ

345

Which of the following pairs of goods is are likely to have a positive cross price elasticity of demand? (1) Cars and Petrol (2) Tea and Coffee (3) Rice and Air-tickets

MCQ

346

Which of the following is are true at equilibrium in a perfect competition? (1) MR = MC (2)AC=MC=AR = MR (3) MC is falling

MCQ

347

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MCQ

348

Identify the incorrect statement.

MCQ

349

Which of the following statements is t for a mixed true economy?

MCQ

350

(1) (2) abpb (c)

MCQ

351

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MCQ

352

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MCQ

353

Which of the following is an INCORRECT match in the context of economics? i Study of an individual firm an industry macroeconomics ii Want satisfying capacity of a good utility ili Exchange of apples with eggs cet eris par i bus

MCQ

354

Which of the following grants are provided from the center's resources over the 2021-26 period? i Grants to local bodies i Disaster risk management funds ili Sector specific grants iv Revenue deficit grants

MCQ

355

Which of the following statements is t true?

MCQ

356

Which of the following statements is are true? (1) Outsourcing of services is an outcome of globalisation. (2) Privatisation implies supremacy of social interest over self interest.

MCQ

357

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MCQ

358

Marginal Rate of Transformation is the slope of

MCQ

359

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MCQ

360

under the external In 1991,1 sector reforms, Indian rupee

MCQ

361

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MCQ

362

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MCQ

363

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MCQ

364

Which of the following is are included while calculating the national income using the income method? (1) Wages and salaries in cash Employers ' contribution to social (2) security

MCQ

365

What is constant along an iso quant

MCQ

366

Which of the following is I: INCORRECT for perfectly competitive markets?

MCQ

367

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MCQ

368

A perfectly elastic demand curve is

MCQ

369

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MCQ

370

What is constant along an indifference curve? (l) Level of Utility 2 Level of Output 3 Level of Price

MCQ

371

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

MCQ

372

Which of the following leads to an outward shift in the supply curve?

MCQ

373

During the first stage of a total product curve, the total product is

MCQ

374

Which of the following activities can be undertaken by a payment bank in India, as per RBI guidelines? (i) Acceptance of demand deposits (ii) Acceptance of time deposits (ii) Issue of debit cards (iv) Issue credit cards

MCQ

375

The possibility curve is a production plot between:

MCQ

376

goods, the demand For normal has aan curve slope.

MCQ

377

growth strategy important adopted by India an was prior to 1991.

MCQ

378

Balance e of Trade is measured as:

MCQ

379

Identify the correct pair of social infrastructure in an economy.

MCQ

380

Which of the given options is INCORRECT in the context of fiscal deficit?

MCQ

381

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MCQ

382

Which of the following statements is true (I) The demand curve is a horizontal straight line in perfect competition (2) Monopoly makes super-normal profits with barriers to entry

MCQ

383

Which of the following statement is the objective s of setting up of Regional rural banks? i development of agriculture, trade and other productive activities in rural area (ii) provide credit and other facilities to the small and marginal farmers and small entrepreneurs.

MCQ

384

Which of the following is are function s of a commercial bank? (1) Accepting deposits (2) Giving loans (3)Payments and settlements

MCQ

385

Market St a bilis ation Scheme (MSS) was launched by the RBI in

MCQ

386

The marginal cost curve is

MCQ

387

The foreign capital investment in India on the eve of independence concentrated on the following sectors of the economy i railways ii tea and coffee iii coal and gold mining

MCQ

388

De licensing means abolishing the requirement of an industrial license to i setup a new unit ii substantially expand an existing unit iii change the location of an existing unit iv change the product mix of an existing unit

MCQ

389

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MCQ

390

Which of the following is are constant along a demand curve? (2) Price of related goods

MCQ

391

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MCQ

392

Which of the following is the best indicator of an economy's total borrowing s

MCQ

393

National Sample Survey Organisation Ns sO provides estimates of magnitude of unemployment on the basis of different concepts Which of the following is such a concept i Usual Status Unemployment ii Current Weekly Status Unemployment ili Current Daily Status Unemployment

MCQ

394

Marginal utility to a consumer is the total When l utility is maximum.

MCQ

395

Which of the following is true for income elasticity of demand l It measures the responsiveness of quantity demanded of a good with respect to consumers ' income (2)It is calculated by dividing percentage change in quantity demanded by percentage change in consumer income

MCQ

396

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MCQ

397

Which of the following are features of India's Green Revolution from the mid-1960 s to the mid-1980 s? (1) Increase in crop productivity (2) Rise in acreage (3) Shift from commercial farming to subsistence farming

MCQ

398

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MCQ

399

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MCQ

400

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MCQ

401

For the production data 95 55 25 Production 25 94 75 the third 3-year simple moving average is:

MCQ

402

For the frequency distribution of income in lakh of the employees in factory Class 1 5 2 5 2.5-3.5 3.5-4.5 4.5-5.5 Frequency the value of mode is

MCQ

403

The mean and median of the distribution is 12 and 15. Then the mode equals to:

MCQ

404

Which option is incorrect?

MCQ

405

In a two way A NOVA table Degree of Sum of Sources of Mean sum Variation Freedom se le nbs of s qu aure s 294 147 Due to Level FA Due to Level FB 12 Due to error Total 312 the value of x, Fa, Fs are:

MCQ

406

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MCQ

407

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MCQ

408

For the frequency distribution of X number of grammatical mistakes per line is as follows. X: (x):0.5 0.3 0.2 The third factorial moment of X is

MCQ

409

The fair dice is rolled l 5 times and face value are noted Face value #of times: The empirical probability of getting a number greater than 4 when a dice is rolled, is

MCQ

410

The interquartile range excludes of the values

MCQ

411

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MCQ

412

Two random variables X and Y are said to be independent if:

MCQ

413

0;x<-1 1(x+1)2;-1 ≤x< 0 For the cumulative distribution function F x (1-x)2:0≤x<1 1.1<X<8 the upper quart ile point is

MCQ

414

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MCQ

415

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MCQ

416

The de seasonal is ed time-series data will have only trend (T), cyclical (C) and irregular (l) components and is expressed as

MCQ

417

If P(A) = 0.4; P(B|A) = 0.05;P(CIA) = 0.04; P(B|A n C) = 0 09 P C An B 0 07 then the probability of occurrence of all events equals to:

MCQ

418

Using the method of semi-averages, secular trend is measured when:

MCQ

419

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MCQ

420

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MCQ

421

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MCQ

422

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MCQ

423

Identify from the following, the moment used as a measure of skew ness

MCQ

424

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MCQ

425

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MCQ

426

The grouped data for the observations are 3-5 Class: 1-3 5-7 Frequency:2 The population skew ness

MCQ

427

For the ANOVA, which option is wrong?

MCQ

428

For the distribution X: -1 p(x): 0.3 0.5 0.2 the third factorial moment is

MCQ

429

Which one is not non-probability sample method

MCQ

430

The median of the following observations 10,11,9,12,10,10,12,10,9,11 is:

MCQ

431

treatment, Z,Z, Yij = y. 721 and Yij = y.Wh ich of the following options is correct?

MCQ

432

Which one is not basis of classification of data?

MCQ

433

If first, second, and third moment about origin are I, 6, and 15 respectively, then Karl Pearson beta coefficient of skew ness βiis

MCQ

434

The value of k so that following is probability mass function -1 X:-2 P(X = x): 2 k 3 k 4 k 3 k 2 k is

MCQ

435

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MCQ

436

For the data set x:

MCQ

437

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MCQ

438

The sixth de cile (D 6)of 5,3,2,6,8,4 is:

MCQ

439

For the two variables X and Y the following observations are tabulated X: 3 Y： 10 10 The Spearman's correlation coefficient is

MCQ

440

The median of following observations 8,9,7,10,8,8,10,8,7,9 is

MCQ

441

Which of the following options is INCORRECT?

MCQ

442

The standard error of the given data 15,5,12,10,20,4 is

MCQ

443

Which option is incorrect for the component of time series?

MCQ

444

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MCQ

445

For the price quantity chart Base year (2000) Current year (2020) Quantity Price Quantity Price (in s) (in s) 20 30 50 40 30 50 60 60 40 70 70 the Las pey res price index for current year is

MCQ

446

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

MCQ

447

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MCQ

448

For the following frequency distribution Class: 3-5 5-7 7-9 9-11 Frequency 1 the value of mode is

MCQ

449

For frequency distribution presentation, which option is wrong?

MCQ

450

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MCQ

451

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MCQ

452

If mean and mode of the distribution is 32 and 21, then the distribution:

MCQ

453

The probability of getting a total of 7 on two dice thrown together is:

MCQ

454

Recession in industry is associated with the:

MCQ

455

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MCQ

456

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MCQ

457

If each observation is halved then the coefficient of quart ile deviation

MCQ

458

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MCQ

459

If mean and median of the distribution are 1 12 and 21,then the distribution

MCQ

460

Fundamental principles of design of experiment are I Random iz ation I Replication III Local control Which option is correct

MCQ

461

Which option is WRONG?

MCQ

462

If moment generating function of continuous random variable X is; t < 入, then E E(X 3) equals to 入一t

MCQ

463

Which of the following correctly completes the given statement Index number helps in determining the cost of living II fixing the dearness allowances III reflecting the real income

MCQ

464

If A, B and c are arbitrary events, then P(An B nC) equals to

MCQ

465

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MCQ

466

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MCQ

467

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MCQ

468

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MCQ

469

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MCQ

470

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MCQ

471

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MCQ

472

For the A NOVA table Source of Sum of Degrees of variations squares freedom Between 75 treatment Error 48 16 Total 123 19 the F statistics is

MCQ

473

Which is not relative measures of skew ness

MCQ

474

In a 3 races, 2 genders and 5 in each treatment group for two-way ANOVA, the degree of freedom for source of variation due to interaction error and total respectively are

MCQ

475

The grouped data for the observation are as follows. Class: 2-4 4-6 6-8 Frequency 2 The population skew ness

MCQ

476

The arithmetic mean of the following frequency distribution of number of members in family in the society X:3 10 Frequency l is

MCQ

477

The Pearson's correlation coefficient between following observation Y：3 is-O.8.If each observation of X is halved and ofY is doubled then Pearson s correlation coefficient equals to

MCQ

478

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MCQ

479

The purchasing power of money is equal to:

MCQ

480

The arithmetic mean of the following frequency distribution of number of accidents X on week working days is: 10 12 Frequency

MCQ

481

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MCQ

482

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MCQ

483

If X andY represent waiting time and service time of customers in shopping mall, have joint density f x y k x 0≤y≤x≤1,thenthevalueofk is

MCQ

484

The value of a and bso that the following is probability mass function X: P(X = x): 3 a 3 b 4 b with mean l l is

MCQ

485

For the variables X and Y, we collect 4 observations with Zx = 10,Z y =14,Zx?= 30,Zy^2 = 54,Zxy = 31. The regression line y onx is

MCQ

486

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MCQ

487

IfA and B are mutually exclusive, the general addition rule is:

MCQ

488

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MCQ

489

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MCQ

490

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MCQ

491

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MCQ

492

For the A NOVA table Source of Sum of Degrees of variations squares freedom 45 Between treatment Error 32 99 Total 19 theF-statistics is:

MCQ

493

A random sample of size 225 is drawn from the population of mean μ and standard deviation.The sample mean follows the distribution with mean 1 oo and standard distribution $\frac{4}{3}$.The value of u and are:

MCQ

494

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MCQ

495

The seventh de cile (D) of data set 4,3,7,10,9,1 is

MCQ

496

For the ANOVA, which of the following options is INCORRECT?

MCQ

497

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MCQ

498

Which of the following is the most relevant for deriving a point estimate?

MCQ

499

If price-quantityarerelatedforbaseyear O and current year (1) are Zpoqo=260,Zpiqo= 395,Zpoqi = 264,Zpiqi= 422, then Marshall Edgeworth price index equals to

MCQ

500

For the distribution with un know e f(x, 0) = 0≤X≤0 0 elsewhere We set the testing of hypothesis H.: = 1 vs Hi: = 2.When the critical region X ≥ 0.4, the value of probability of type-II error is:

MCQ