SSC Exams · SSC CGL

SSC CGL 2025 Tier 1 ( Held on 13th September 2025 Shift 3 )

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Section 1

General Intelligence & Reasoning

25 questions Section Test
Q1

Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. PQR, STU, VWX, ?

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Q2

How many meaningful four-letter English words can be formed using the first, second, fourth, and fifth letters of the word "CARPET" (when counted from left to right), using each letter only once in each word?

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Q3

If $5 + 3 = 34$ and $6 + 1 = 37$ , then find the value of $7 + 2 = ?$

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Q4

If the difference between 95 and 11 is divided by 7, what is the result?

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Q5

In the following question, the second word is formed by applying a specific alphabetic coding pattern to the first word. Apply the same pattern to the third word to determine the correct option from the given alternatives. RUSH : SQTRIG : : GATE : ?

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Q6

In the following question, a group of three numbers/symbols is given in each option. Identify the group that does NOT follow the same pattern as the others.

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Q7

After interchanging $-$ & $/$ and 8 & 4, which of the following equations will hold true?

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Q8

Identify the assumptions that must hold for the statement to be valid, then choose the correct option. Statement: The city council mandated that all residents wear masks when using public transport systems. Assumptions: I. Wearing masks reduces the transmission rate of airborne illnesses. II. A significant number of residents use public transport. III. The city council has the authority to enforce such regulations.

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Q9

Choose the option that is similar to the following numbers: 13, 17, 23, 59

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Q10

In a row of students, Sita is 12th from the right end. If she shifts 5 positions to her left, she becomes 18th from the left end. What is the total number of students in the row?

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Q11

Complete the pattern: 3, 10, 101, ? (Note: Hindi version uses 2, 3, 10, 101, ?)

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Q12

If 'CREDIT' is coded as 'XIVWRG', then how is 'DEBIT' coded?

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Q13

Complete the series. 4, 9, 16, ___, 36

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Q14

How many vertices does a cube have?

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Q15

A 60 L mixture has milk and water in 4: 1 ratio. How much water should be added to make the ratio 3: 2?

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Q16

Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. HJA, EMX, BPU, YSR, ?

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Q17

If 'P' means ' $\times$ ', 'Q' means ' $\div$ ', 'R' means ' $+$ ', and 'S' means ' $-$ ', what is the value of the following expression? 15 R 5 Q 1 S 2 P 3

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Q18

In the following question, the second word is coded from the first using a consistent letter substitution pattern. Identify the logic in the first pair and apply the same to find the correct code for the third word. PLANT : OKZMS : : MONEY : ?

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Q19

The position of how many letters will remain unchanged if each of the letters in the word "PROJECT" is arranged in alphabetical order?

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Q20

X is the son of Y. Y's sister is Z. Z's husband is W. How is W related to X?

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Q21

If $4 \times 2 = 20$ and $7 \times 3 = 58$ , then $5 \times 1 = ?$

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Q22

If TABLE is coded as UBCMF, how is CHAIR coded?

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Q23

Identify the similar address: House No. 45C, Building 7, Sector 15, Sohna Road, Gurgaon, Haryana -122001

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Q24

If $\div = \times$ , $+ = -$ , $\times = \div$ ; then $20 + 4 \div 2 \times 1 = ?$

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Q25

A woman introduces a man: "He is the husband of my sister's mother's only daughter." How is the man related to the woman?

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Section 2

General Awareness

25 questions Section Test
Q26

In Jharkhand’s Jawa festival, girls offering green melons symbolise:

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Q27

Which department introduced the ‘Dak Karmayogi’ digital capacity-building platform?

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Q28

What is the main purpose of the 2024 Green Credit Programme?

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Q29

Fill in the blanks: A new All-India Service can be created by a resolution passed in the _______.

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Q30

Consider the following statements about India’s fertilizer sector: 1. India fully meets its potash fertiliser demand domestically. 2. Urea is the most produced nitrogen fertiliser. 3. Fertiliser output grew after the Green Revolution. 4. Gujarat and Kerala contribute modestly to fertiliser production. Which of the statements given above are correct?

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Q31

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Samhita (BNSS), which section mandates video-recording of search and seizure operations?

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Q32

Which of the following statements about modes of dismissal in cricket is accurate?

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Q33

Natural levees typically form in which type of landscape?

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Q34

Dollu Kunitha, a traditional group dance using large drums, originates from which Indian state?

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Q35

Fill in the blanks: A raga with six distinct notes is categorized under the ____ jaati.

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Q36

India successfully completed the SpaDeX docking mission on:

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Q37

Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct option: Assertion (A): India is working on constructing a Third Launch Pad at SDSC-SHAR. Reason (R): The proposed pad aims to support frequent launches and accommodate heavier future rockets like NGLV.

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Q38

Statements regarding carbon markets in India: 1. Afforestation and renewable energy can generate carbon credits. 2. India has introduced its own voluntary carbon market. 3. Carbon markets function under the Income Tax Act, 1961. Which of the statements given above are correct?

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Q39

Arrange the steps in the correct order for the passage of a Money Bill: A) Introduction in Lok Sabha B) Approval in Lok Sabha C) Sent to Rajya Sabha D) Sent to the President for assent

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Q40

Consider the following statements: 1. The Inter-State Council is a constitutional body set up under Article 263. 2. Its recommendations are binding on both the Union and States. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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Q41

Who netted 10 goals for India in their 24–1 win over the USA to claim a second straight Olympic hockey gold?

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Q42

Under India’s 2021 BRICS Presidency, which initiative was launched to strengthen startup collaboration?

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Q43

As per the 2025 Energy Transition Index, what is a key requirement for improving renewable energy integration?

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Q44

In the Nyokum festival, the word Kum stands for:

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Q45

Which of the following regarding the 2023 Intercontinental Cup final is correct?

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Q46

Who received the 2025 Padma Shri for being the first formally recognised master of Gujarat’s Tangalia weaving craft?

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Q47

Consider the features of wind-shaped landforms: 1. Rock structures with narrow bases and wider tops. 2. Flat-topped remnants similar to tablelands. 3. Isolated stone pillars standing above eroded surroundings. Which of the statements given above are correct?

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Q48

Which of the following Ashokan pillar locations is correctly paired with its present-day state?

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Q49

Coal deposits in the North-Eastern Plateau are primarily linked to which river valley?

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Q50

Which statements regarding The Neeraj Chopra Story: The Man Who Made History are correct? 1. It explains his preparation, discipline, and struggles. 2. The book was authored by his former Olympian coach. Which of the statements given above are correct?

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Section 3

Quantitative Aptitude

25 questions Section Test
Q51

A, B, and C invested 80,000, 1,20,000, and 2,40,000 respectively in a business. If the total profit at the end of the year is 80,000, what is A's share of the profit?

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Q52

The average salary of 30 employees is 40,000. The average salary of 10 senior staff is 60,000. What is the average salary for the other employees?

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Q53

A principal of 1,00,000 is invested at 10 % per annum compound interest, compounded annually. After how many years will the amount grow to 1,46,410?

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Q54

A shopkeeper made a loss of 150 on an article. If the loss percentage was 5%, what was the cost price of the article (in Rs)?

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Q55

A cylinder and a hemisphere have the same volume and base radius. Find the ratio of the height of the cylinder to its radius.

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Q56

A person invested 20,000 in two schemes — Scheme X at 15% p.a. and Scheme Y at 10% p.a., both under simple interest. After 1 year, the total interest from both schemes was 2,160. How much was invested in Scheme X?

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Q57

A and B start a business. A invests 2 times more than B. After 4 months, A withdraws half of his capital, and B doubles his capital. If the total profit after one year is 72,000, find the share of A.

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Q58

A cricketer's average in 12 innings is 58. If his highest score is excluded, the average drops to 54. What is his highest score?

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Q59

A tank contains 3,500 milliliters of water. If its full capacity is 0.006 kiloliters, what percentage of the tank is empty?

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Q60

Team A scores: 38, 42, 40. Team B scores: 45, 46, 44. Which team had a higher average score?

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Q61

A sector has a central angle of $120^{\circ}$ and a radius of 8 cm. Another sector of the same circle has a central angle of $3\pi/4$ radians. What is the ratio of the area of the first sector to the area of the second sector?

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Q62

A and B share a rented field. A utilizes 40 horses for 5 months, while B uses 60 cows for 4 months and 90 sheep for 5 months. If 4 horses are equivalent to 5 cows, and 3 cows are equal to 9 sheep. What portion of the rent is A pay ?

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Q63

A furniture manufacturer sells a dining table set to a showroom at a 25% discount on the marked price, but adds a 10% handling fee on the discounted price. The showroom then sells the set for 4500 more than what they paid, thereby earning a profit of 25%. At what price had the manufacturer marked the dining table set?

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Q64

A stationery supplier ordered 10 boxes of premium pens and some boxes of standard pens. The price of premium pens per box was twice that of standard pens. When the order was delivered, the number of boxes of premium and standard pens had been accidentally interchanged. This increased the total bill by 25%. What was the ratio of premium pens to standard pens?

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Q65

A machine fills 0.4 liters of water every second. How much does it fill in 8 seconds?

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Q66

A vendor mixes two types of coffee beans – one costing 120 per kg and the other costing 180 per kg, in the ratio 2 : 1. If he sells the mixed variety at 152 per kg, find his gain or loss percent.

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Q67

Two circular ponds have circumferences in the ratio 2: 5. If the smaller pond has an area of 150 $m^2$ , what is the approximate area of the larger pond?

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Q68

If the smallest of three concentric circles has a circumference of $4\pi$ cm and the largest circle has a circumference of $14\pi$ cm, what is the circumference of the middle circle?

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Q69

A solid cylinder radius 6 cm is drilled by four cylindrical holes each radius 1 cm length equal to the full height. Volume removed is approximately what percent?

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Q70

If B is 20% more than A, and C is 25% more than B, then what is A : C?

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Q71

If the base of a prism is a regular hexagon of side 4 cm and the height is 10 cm, what is its volume?

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Q72

An article is marked at 900. A shop owner allows a discount of 12% and still gains 8%. What is the approximate cost price of the article?

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Q73

A rod is divided in the ratio 1/2 : 3/5 : 2/10. Total length = 7 m. Find the smallest piece.

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Q74

Two types of sugar, one costing ₹45/kg and another costing ₹60/kg, are mixed with a third variety in the ratio 1: 2: 3. If the mixture is worth 60/kg, what is the price of the third variety of sugar per kg?

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Q75

A bookseller sells a novel for Y and makes a loss of 15%. To clear old stock, he decides to mark the novel at $0.8Y$ . He then allows a further discount of 5% on this marked price. What will be the percentage loss that he will incur on this clearance sale?

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Section 4

English Comprehension

25 questions Section Test
Q76

Convert to direct speech: The coach said that the players were improving with every match.

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Q77

Select the correct option: Neither the editor nor the writers ___ ready to approve the revision.

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Q78

Change into passive: Will the committee implement the updated guidelines immediately?

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Q79

Find the part containing an error: Neither the forecast of revenue nor the estimate of deficit levels (1)/ appear to reflect the liquidity issues (2)/ that small traders encounter (3)/ during economic contractions. (4)

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Q80

Rearrange to form a coherent paragraph: 1. Research is a core driver of scientific and academic development. 2. It involves systematic inquiry to discover or verify facts. 3. It may be theoretical for expanding concepts or applied for solving issues. 4. Results are documented and peer-reviewed to ensure reliability. Which is the correct order?

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Q81

Reading Comprehension Passage Question: Why was early vaccine supply uneven across India?

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Q82

Reading Comprehension Passage Question: What is the author's tone regarding India’s vaccine drive?

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Q83

Reading Comprehension Passage Question: What unintended outcome arose from the CoWIN platform?

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Q84

Reading Comprehension Passage Question: Which measure helped address hesitancy and false claims?

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Q85

Reading Comprehension Passage Question: What theme best captures the message of the passage?

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Q86

Convert into active voice: The parcel will have been handed over by the courier before evening.

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Q87

Choose the correct one-word substitute for “A specialist who drafts maps.”

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Q88

Select the correct option: Each of the datasets ___ verified independently.

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Q89

Select the correct option: The curator decided ___ exhibiting the fragile manuscript.

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Q90

Rearrange to form a coherent paragraph: 1. Peer-to-peer networks are the most common type in decentralized systems. 2. Blockchain is essentially a distributed ledger that records transactions securely. 3. This structure ensures openness by validating entries through consensus. 4. Copies of the ledger are shared across multiple computers.

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Q91

Select the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word: The guards stood in pike formation outside the hall.

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Q92

Select the most appropriate antonym of the word Cacophony.

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Q93

Choose the correct replacement: They returned back to home after the ceremony.

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Q94

Choose the correct replacement: He was accused for theft.

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Q95

Convert to indirect speech: He said, “How long have you been waiting?”

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Q96

Select the most appropriate synonym of the word DELETERIOUS.

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Q97

Find the part of the sentence containing an error: That none of the delegates considered the plan workable (1)/ is less surprising than the fact (2)/ that neither the director nor the adviser (3)/ were notified earlier. (4)

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Q98

Choose the correct meaning of the idiom: Show the white feather.

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Q99

Spot the correct spelling of the term used for “plant-assisted pollutant removal.”

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Q100

Select the most appropriate antonym of the word Subterfuge.

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