SSC Exams · SSC GD Constable

Shift 3 Paper PDF 3

Shift 3 Paper PDF 3 with official questions, answers, and practice mock test.
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Section 1

General Intelligence and Reasoning

19 questions Section Test
1

A dice has its faces marked by letters Y, S, I, A, D and E. Two positions of the same dice are shown in the given figures. Which face is opposite to face Y?

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2

FROM is related to CPLK in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, TJCE is related to QHZC. To which of the given options is KDTY related, following the same logic?

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3

Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes. Fruit, Light, Shirt

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4

The position(s) of how many letters will remain unchanged if each of the letters in the word QUARTOS is arranged in the English alphabetical order?

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5

Eight people are sitting in two parallel rows containing 4 people each in such a way that there is equal distance between adjacent persons. In row 1, D, A, N and S are seated and all of them are facing south. In row 2, M, O, R and K are seated and all of them are facing north. Thus, each person faces another person from the other row. No one sits to the right of K. Only two people sit between R and K. The one facing O sits second to the right of the one facing K. A sits to the immediate right of S. N sits to the immediate right of A and does not face O. Which of the following represents both people facing each other?

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6

Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)

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7

In a certain code language, 'FWYO' is coded as '39' and 'SIXR' is coded as '38'. How is 'LARZ' coded in the given language?

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8

Six friends, R, S, T, X, Y and Z, are sitting in a straight row facing north (but not necessarily in the same order) . Only two people sit to the left of Y. Only two people sit between Y and Z. Only one person sits between Z and X. R sits to the immediate left of S. How many people sit between Y and S?

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9

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 2, 3, 6, 11, 18, ?

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10

Select the option in which the given figure (X) is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

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11

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All inks are pens. All pens are rubbers. No rubber is a sharpener. Conclusions: (I) No ink is a sharpener. (II) Some rubbers are inks.

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12

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 451 450 447 442 ? 426

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13

Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series, will logically complete the series. _HMGD_NHEJ_IFKP_ GLQ_

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14

What will come in the place of the question mark ‘(?)’ in the following equation, if ‘÷’ and ‘×’ are interchanged and ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged? 40 − 8 ÷ 1 + 72 × 8 = ?

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15

In a certain code language, ‘cup of coffee’ is coded as ‘lh em ro’ and ‘he loves coffee’ is coded as ‘em tf za’. How is ‘coffee’ coded in the given language?

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16

GRSN is related to JUVQ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, KDEA is related to NGHD. To which of the following is BSTG related, following the same logic?

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17

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? LMD MKG NIJ OGM ? QCS

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18

A dice has its faces marked by letters P, U, C, O, E and M. Two positions of the same dice are shown in the given figures. Which face is opposite to face M?

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19

P is the brother of R. R is the father of Q. S is the wife of Q. T is the daughter of S. How is P related to T?

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Section 2

General Awareness

19 questions Section Test
20

Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

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21

Which dance style was recognised by the famous 'Tanjore Quartet' of the nineteenth century?

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22

The Second Five Year plan was based upon the ideas of which of the following statisticians?

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23

Which of the following was the theme of Independence Day 2023?

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24

How much was the literacy rate of India as per census 1951?

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25

As per Sample Registration System (SRS) 2020, which of the following states had the highest infant mortality rate?

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26

Name the Indian sitar player who became a hippie music icon of the 1960s after collaborating with the Beatles.

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27

Which of the following is the least likely to cause obesity in humans?

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28

Which Article of the Constitution of India emphasises the provision of just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief?

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29

In which Olympics did Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore win a silver medal in shooting?

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30

Which British official was responsible for the partition of Bengal in 1905?

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31

Who retired as India’s Ambassador to the United States in January 2024?

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32

Who was the first Deputy Chairman of Planning Commission of India?

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33

Who produced methane in 1856 by bringing carbon disulphide vapour in contact with red hot copper and hydrogen sulphide?

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34

Which authority introduced new guidelines to enhance transparency in the coaching sector in November 2024?

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35

There are primarily three pieces of equipment, a bowl, a jack and a mat, which are needed to play _____.

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36

With which Indian dance form was Guru Chemancheri Kunhiraman Nair associated?

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37

Which of the following sites provides evidence of early urban planning during the Middle Iron Age in India?

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38

From which region of the Himalayas does the river Brahmaputra originate?

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Section 3

Quantitative Aptitude

21 questions Section Test
39

What were the main objectives of the Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-79)?

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40

According to the Indian Constitution, which of the following is NOT a power of the Governor?

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41

The simple interest on a principal amount (in ₹) is ₹360 for a period of 4 years at the rate of 2% per annum. The principal amount (in ₹) is:

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42

If the selling price is ₹2,886 after allowing a discount of 26% on the marked price, then the amount of discount is:

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43

The average age of 96 workers in a factory is 32 years. The average age of the men is 41 years and that of the women is 25 years. Find the number of women in the factory.

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44

What time (in seconds) is required for a 496 m long train to cross a 664 m long tunnel, if the train travels at a speed of 18 km/h?

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45

Evaluate: (-9) - (-60) ÷ (-15) + (-2) × 6

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46

The average weight of Ashish, Kiran and Mahesh is 46 kg. If the average weight of Ashish and Kiran be 40 kg and that of Kiran and Mahesh be 43 kg, then the weight of Kiran (in kg) is:

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47

The price (per litre) of petrol increases by 60%. By what percent should its consumption be reduced such that the expenditure on it increases by 44% only?

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48

[Image / Diagram based question]

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49

Two containers contains 765 litres and 833 litres of liquid, respectively. The maximum capacity of container that can measure the liquid of both containers is:

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50

[Image / Diagram based question]

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51

[Image / Diagram based question]

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52

Find the value of

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53

If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 10% and its denominator is diminished by 10%, then the fraction becomes . Find the original fraction.

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54

If at same rate of interest, in 2 years, the simple interest is ₹40 and compound interest is ₹44, then what is the principal (in ₹)?

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55

400 pears were bought at ₹1200 per hundred and were sold at a profit of ₹1000. Find the selling price (in ₹) per dozen of pears.

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56

The number of days to finish a work by A is double the number of days to finish the work by B. The number of days to finish the work by C is half the number of days to finish the work by B. A can finish the work in 12 days. If B works on the 1st day, A works on the 2nd day and C works on the 3rd day, again B works on the 4th day and so on, then the work is finished in _____ days.

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57

The LCM of 36, 63, 372 and 126 is:

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58

By selling an article for ₹20,240, a shopkeeper loses 8%. For what price (in ₹) should he sell it to make a profit of 12%?

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59

Find the mean proportional of 9 and 49.

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Section 4

English Comprehension

19 questions Section Test
60

Ketan has two grandsons Mahesh and David. 15 year old Mahesh gets some money from Ketan’s wealth and 16 year old David gets rest of the money. But Mahesh and David will get money only when they turn 22 years old. Till then the money is in a bank getting interest at rate 10% compounded annually. When both turn 22, they receive the same amount. How much had Ketan given David (in ₹) initially, if total money with Ketan was ₹25200?

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61

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. Insightful

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62

Select the most appropriate synonym for the given word. Metamorphosis

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63

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

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64

Select the word that best completes the given sentence. Determine the collocation through the sentence. My mother told me we should ____________ precautions to avoid getting sick during flu season.

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65

Identify the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given sentence. The chef prepared a delicous meal for the guests.

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66

The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer. She knows the city most/ so I am going/ to have a look around with her.

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67

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. The company experienced a significant drop in sales; consequently, it had to lay off several employees.

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68

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. Let the cat out of the bag

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69

Select the most appropriate word that can substitute the underlined word in the given sentence without altering the sentence's meaning. The professor’s lecture on quantum mechanics was as enlightening as it was challenging.

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70

Select the most appropriate word segment that rectifies the bracketed and complete the given sentence meaningfully. (No sooner did we arrived) at the airport than we got busy with the luggage we were carrying.

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71

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks. The modern office (1)___featured sleek (2)___, open spaces, and (3)____ windows, fostering a productive and collaborative work environment for employees.

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72

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. The price of wheat _____ has gone up in recent times.

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73

Select the word from among the given options that is closest in meaning to the underlined word in the given sentence. The company’s generous donation helped fund the construction of a new library in the village.

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74

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. If I _____ you, I would take that job offer.

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75

The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them contains a grammatical error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. I cannot find/the book everywhere/in the house;/ it seems to have disappeared.

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76

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1.

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77

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2.

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78

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 3.

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Section 5

General Hindi

22 questions Section Test
79

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 4.

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80

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 5.

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81

‘कक्षा में आज सभी विद्याार्थी आए हैं।’ सर्वाधिक उपयुक्त विकल्प चुनकर वाक्य के रेखांकित अंश को बदलें-

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82

निम्नलिखित वाक्य में रेखांकित खंड के स्थाान पर प्रयुक्त होने वाले सबसे उपयुक्त विकल्प का चयन कीजिए- सक्षम पिता जी की तत्पर सेवा के लिए है।

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83

कमल _____ के ऊपर ओस की बूंद बड़ी मनमोहक लग रही थी |' 'राजनीति में नेता अक्सर लाभ के लिए अपना _____ बदल लेते हैं '| उपर्युक्त वाक्यों में रिक्त स्थाान की पूर्ति के लिए उपयुक्त अनेकार्थी शब्द है -

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84

निम्नलिखित वाक्य को ध्याानपूर्वक पढ़ें और वाक्य में रीतिवाचक क्रि या विशेषण संबंधी त्रुुटि की पहचान कर शुद्ध वाक्य लिखें। निर्मल बोलता है।

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85

निम्नलिखित वाक्यांश के लिए सार्थक शब्द चुनिए - जहां से सूर्य उदित होता है

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86

निम्न वाक्य को शुद्ध कीजिए - किसी भी नए कार्य को आरंभ करने में विपत्त आती ही है।

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87

हमने अतिथियों से पूछा कि क्या वे भोजन खाएँगे?' इस वाक्य में क्रि या सम्बन्धीी त्रुुटि पहचानकर निम्नलिखित में से शुद्ध वाक्य चुनिए -

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88

गंगा को देवनदी कहते हैं और_______भी। ‘गंगा’ के पर्याय से वाक्य पूर्ण करें--

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89

‘जिसमें कुछ करने की क्षमता न हो’ उपरोक्त वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द होगा-

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90

निम्नलिखित मुहावरे के लिए उपयुक्त सार्थक शब्द है – झांसा देना

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91

‘कोमल’ का विलोम शब्द नीचे दिए विकल्पों में से चुनिए-

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92

निम्नलिखित वाक्य के किस खंड में अशुद्धि है? कोयला जलकर राख हो गई।

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93

अभी मेरी आय कम हो गई है। रेखांकित शब्द के विलोम शब्द का चयन कीजिए।

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94

नव वर्ष के अवसर पर बाजार में भीड़ दिखाई देती है। वाक्य में बाजार शब्द है।

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95

निम्नलिखित वाक्यों की पूर्ति निरर्थक शब्द से करें अमन के घर जाओ तो वह हमेशा_______ को पूछता है।

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96

रिक्त स्थाान के लिए सही विकल्प चुनें।(31)

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97

रिक्त स्थाान के लिए सही विकल्प चुनें।(32)

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98

रिक्त स्थाान के लिए सही विकल्प चुनें।(33)

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99

रिक्त स्थाान के लिए सही विकल्प चुनें।(34)

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100

रिक्त स्थाान के लिए सही विकल्प चुनें।(35)

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