SSC Exams · SSC GD Constable

Shift 1 Paper PDF 3

Shift 1 Paper PDF 3 with official questions, answers, and practice mock test.
Start Mock Test Score: 0 / 0
In-article ad slot
Section 1

General Intelligence and Reasoning

19 questions Section Test
1

A paper is folded and punched as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?

MCQ
2

In a certain code language 'XEKP' is coded as '6-25-19-14' and 'UBHW' is coded as '9-28- 22-7'. What is the code for 'QCJR' in the given language?

MCQ
3

Seven people, E, F, G, H, K, L and M are sitting in a row, facing north (but not necessarily in the same order) .No one sits to the left of E. Only four people sit between E and G. Only three people sit to the right of F. L sits to the immediate left of M. K is not an immediate neighbour of F. Who sits at the rightmost end of the line?

MCQ
4

What will come in the place of the question mark ‘(?)’ in the following equation, if ‘÷’ and ‘×’ are interchanged and ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged? 27 − 6 ÷ 4 + 24 × 3 = ?

MCQ
5

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 901 888 902 887 903 886 904 ?

MCQ
6

Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

MCQ
7

NAVI is related to QCYK in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, ZIHQ is related to CKKS. To which of the given options is IOQW related, following the same logic?

MCQ
8

In a certain code language, 'A + B' means ‘A is the daughter of B’, 'A – B' means ‘A is the brother of B’, 'A × B' means ‘A is the wife of B’ and 'A ÷ B' means ‘A is the father of B. ’ Based on the above, how is P related to T if ‘P + Q ÷ R – S × T’?

MCQ
9

Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? ​ (Note: The odd man out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)

MCQ
10

Two different positions of the same dice are given below. Which is the number on the face opposite to the face containing 12?

MCQ
11

Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

MCQ
12

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 195 175 150 120 85 ?

MCQ
13

Each letter in the word HARMFUL is arranged in the English alphabetical order. How many letters are there in the English alphabetical order between the letter which is third from the left end and the one which is third from the right end in the new letter-cluster thus formed?

MCQ
14

In a certain code language, ‘we like trees’ is coded as ‘bv mn fd’ and ‘trees like water’ is coded as ‘bv cx fd’. How is 'we’ coded in the given language?

MCQ
15

Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes. Males, Fathers, Females

MCQ
16

EWHO is related to HZKR in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, OPQM is related to RSTP. To which of the given options is LTOG related, following the same logic?

MCQ
17

Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series will complete the series. E _ _ MXEGL _ _ _ GLM _ E _ _ MX

MCQ
18

What should come in place of (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? OAS, QCU, SEW, UGY, ?

MCQ
19

Six people, Q, R, S, T, U and Y, are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). Only one person sits between Q and Y when counted from the left of Y. Y sits third to the left of R. U sits to the immediate right of Y. S is not an immediate neighbour of Y. How many people sit between S and T when counted from the right of S?

MCQ
Section 2

General Awareness

18 questions Section Test
20

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: No almond is a date. No date is a raisin. No date is a cherry. Conclusions: (I): No almond is a raisin. (II): Some cherries are raisins.

MCQ
21

Who among the following was the founder of Bahishkrit Hitkarini Sabha (Society for Welfare of the Ostracized)?

MCQ
22

The office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India falls under which ministry?

MCQ
23

Which of the following is NOT a national festival of India?

MCQ
24

The Badminton World Federation (BWF) has upgraded India Open from Super 500 level to Super 750 level for the next _____ years.

MCQ
25

With which of the following dance forms is Rukmini Devi Arundale associated?

MCQ
26

To whom is the Orange Cap awarded in the Indian Premier League (IPL)?

MCQ
27

What was the goal of 'National Beekeeping & Honey Mission' ('NBHM')?

MCQ
28

What was the proposed status of RGNIYD (Rajiv Gandhi National Institute of Youth Development)?

MCQ
29

On 5 August 2024, which individual, along with top military officials, met former Bangladeshi Prime Minister Sheikh Hasina at Ghaziabad's Hindon Airbase?

MCQ
30

Which of the following is the concerned Union Ministry that introduced the Jammu and Kashmir Local Bodies Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2024 in the parliament?

MCQ
31

In India, during a National Emergency, who may extend the term of Legislative Assemblies for a period not exceeding one year at a time?

MCQ
32

What is the name of the southern half of the Pangaea supercontinent that existed about 300 million years ago?

MCQ
33

Mayiladumparai, which was notified in 2022 as the oldest Iron Age site in the Indian subcontinent, is in which of the following states in India?

MCQ
34

In which Part of the Indian Constitution are Directive Principles of State Policy enumerated?

MCQ
35

Which revolution followed the Green Revolution in India, focusing on increasing the production of fruits and vegetables?

MCQ
36

Aditya Prateek Singh Sisodia is the rapper who debuted with the song 'DJ wale babu'. What is his professional name?

MCQ
37

As per Sample Registration System 2020, what is the infant death rate in India?

MCQ
Section 3

Quantitative Aptitude

21 questions Section Test
38

Which experiment is Ernest Rutherford well known for performing in 1911?

MCQ
39

If a fish eats a shrimp, the energy gets transferred from:

MCQ
40

Which Indian dancer achieved recognition in Guinness World Records 2023 by completing a five-day dance marathon?

MCQ
41

The price (per litre) of petrol increases by 85%. By what percent should its consumption be reduced such that the expenditure on it increases by 11% only?

MCQ
42

The LCM of 75, 45, 180 and 110 is:

MCQ
43

When difference between compound and simple interest for three years is ₹93 at 10% interest per annum, the principal is ₹______

MCQ
44

By selling an article for ₹4,824, a man gains 20%. What will be his profit percentage (rounded off to the nearest integer) if he sells it for ₹6,000?

MCQ
45

Ram, Ravi and Reena can do a piece of work in 16, 20 and 24 days, respectively. They began the work together but Ravi left the work 5 days before the completion of the work. In how much time did they finish the work together?

MCQ
46

)

MCQ
47

The product of two numbers is 1,48,176 and their LCM is 3,528. What is their HCF?

MCQ
48

Kanchan sold 153 chairs and had a gain equal to the selling price of 78 chairs. What is his profit percentage?

MCQ
49

A man goes to Chennai from Hyderabad at a speed of 56km/hr and returns to Hyderabad at speed of 72km/hr, through same route. What is his average speed (in km/hr) of the entire journey?

MCQ
50

The average age of 22 students of a class is 47 years. If the age of the teacher is also included, the average age of the whole group becomes 48 years. The age (in years) of the teacher is:

MCQ
51

The LCM of 30, 13, 180 and 234 is:

MCQ
52

Gopal invests a sum of ₹5400 and Akshay invests a sum of ₹10200 at the same rate of simple interest per annum. If, at the end of 4 years, Akshay gets ₹720 more interest than Gopal, then find the rate of interest per annum (in percentage).

MCQ
53

A person travels by a motorcycle to a place at an average speed of 60 km/h and returns at an average speed of 30 km/h. Find his average speed (in km/h) for the whole journey.

MCQ
54

Two trains are moving in opposite directions at speeds of 110 km/h and 140 km/h. The length of one train is 140 m. The time taken by them to cross each other is 5 seconds. The length (in m) of the other train, correct to 2 decimal places, is:

MCQ
55

The value of an ornament depreciates every year by 5%. If the present value of the ornament is ₹12,500, what will be its value after 2 years?

MCQ
56

A shopkeeper marks a table at 40% above the cost price and gives a discount of 25%. If he still makes a profit of ₹450, what is the cost price (in ₹) of the table?

MCQ
57

Determine the number that must be subtracted from both terms of the ratio 43 : 91 to make the ratio 3 : 7.

MCQ
58

Ashok has ₹1612 with him. He divided it amongst his sons Raj and Varun and asked them to invest it at 8% rate of interest compounded annually. It was seen that Raj and Varun got same amount after 14 and 15 years respectively. How much (in ₹) did Ashok give to Raj?

MCQ
Section 4

English Comprehension

21 questions Section Test
59

LCM and HCF of two numbers are 144 and 8 respectively. If one of the numbers is 16, then find the other number.

MCQ
60

Find the fourth proportional of 5$\sqrt{24}$, 3$\sqrt{10}$ and 3$\sqrt{15}$.

MCQ
61

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. Each of the students __________ completed their assignments.

MCQ
62

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence and rectify it. If no correction is needed, select ‘No correction required’. The cake (was baking) in the oven when I arrived.

MCQ
63

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

MCQ
64

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. The ___________ design of the new energy-efficient appliances has reduced electricity consumption significantly.

MCQ
65

The given sentence is divided into four segments. Select the option that has the segment with an adverbial usage error. Mr. Joe remarked / that the audience / brightly listened / to the speech.

MCQ
66

Select the word that best completes the given sentence. Determine the collocation through the sentence. Deepa is __________ worried about you.

MCQ
67

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. Keen

MCQ
68

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. Although Tania and her friend are poles apart, they still love each other.

MCQ
69

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word

MCQ
70

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. Salvage

MCQ
71

Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. They decided to hit the nail on the head with their solution.

MCQ
72

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given word. Resilience

MCQ
73

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. Proud

MCQ
74

Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error. Last week, while walking in the garden, I saw a toddler who was sleeping in the pram.

MCQ
75

Select the appropriate synonym of the given word. Elusive

MCQ
76

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1.

MCQ
77

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2.

MCQ
78

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 3.

MCQ
79

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 4.

MCQ
Section 5

General Hindi

21 questions Section Test
80

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 5.

MCQ
81

'निर्झर एवं प्रपात' पर्याय हैं-

MCQ
82

निम्नलिखित में से किस वाक्य में एक दूसरे के उचित विलोम शब्द का प्रयोग नहीं है?

MCQ
83

हम स्वााधीन भारत में रहते हैं। रेखांकित शब्द के उचित विलोम शब्द का चयन कीजिए।

MCQ
84

वर्तनी की दृष्टि से दिए गए वाक्य के किस अंश में त्रुुटि है चयन करें? अनिष्ठ की आशंका से नीमा का कलेजा काँप उठा।

MCQ
85

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा शब्द पुल्लिंं ग नहीं है?

MCQ
86

निम्नलिखित वाक्यांश हेतु सार्थक शब्द का चुनाव करें। जो बूढ़ा न हो

MCQ
87

मुहावरे और उसके अर्थ के लिए सही विकल्प चुनें। अंग-अंग ढीला होना

MCQ
88

रेखांकित शब्द के स्थाान पर सर्वोचित विकल्प चुनिए। गुलाब का कोई भी नाम रख दो गंध ही देगा।

MCQ
89

निम्नलिखित वाक्य को ध्याानपूर्वक पढ़ें और चिन्हि त शब्द का पर्यायवाची अर्थ लिखें। भैया ने इस बात का खंडन किया कि दहेज लेना-देना हमारी परंपरा है।

MCQ
90

‘राजा ने भिक्षुुक को अपने यहाँ ________ दिया ।' वाक्य में रिक्त स्थाान की पूर्ति तत्सम शब्द द्वाारा कीजिए।

MCQ
91

निम्नलिखित वाक्य में रेखांकित खंड के स्थाान पर प्रयुक्त होने वाले सबसे उपयुक्त विकल्प का चयन कीजिए- वह छोड़कर चला भोजन गया।

MCQ
92

‘मैं कभी किसी __________पर नहीं गयी'| उचित सार्थक-निरर्थक शब्द-युग्म से वाक्य पूर्ण करें-

MCQ
93

वाक्य के रेखांकित शब्द को नीचे दिये गये शब्दों में से सर्वोचित शब्द से परिवर्तित करें- अधिक खा लेने के चलते मेरा हाल आज बुरा है।

MCQ
94

निम्नलिखित वाक्य में वर्तनी संबंधी त्रुुटि की पहचान करें। चौपाल पर पिताजी गाँव के बढ़े-बूढ़ों के साथ हुक्काा पीते हैं।

MCQ
95

वह बच्चाा सामने जा रहा है जिसने तुम्हाारी किताब फाड़ दी थी। वाक्य में निहित विशेषण है।

MCQ
96

रिक्त स्थाान के लिए सही विकल्प चुनें।(1)

MCQ
97

रिक्त स्थाान के लिए सही विकल्प चुनें।(2)

MCQ
98

रिक्त स्थाान के लिए सही विकल्प चुनें।(3)

MCQ
99

रिक्त स्थाान के लिए सही विकल्प चुनें।(4)

MCQ
100

रिक्त स्थाान के लिए सही विकल्प चुनें।(5)

MCQ